CCNA Study

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 2 (100%)

2009-08-21T23:15:00.000-07:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about the function of the Serial 0/0/0 interface on the router after the commands are entered?

The serial link will be closed if the number of received packets at the destination node falls below 90 percent of the packets that are sent.

2. Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a serial interface, a technician enters the command show interface serial 0/0/0 . If the interface is in DCE mode, what two problems are likely to cause the indicated problem? (Choose two.)

The remote CSU or DSU has failed.

A timing problem has occurred on the cable.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true regarding the output shown? The PAP passwords did not match, so the routers are trying CHAP authentication.4. Why are serial connections preferred over parallel connections for long transmission lengths?

Parallel connections are subject to clock skew and to crosstalk between wires.

5. Which two statements are true about time-division multiplexing (TDM)? (Choose two.)

Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel.

Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination.

6. Which authentication protocol can be spoofed to allow playback attacks?

PAP

7. What function do Network Control Protocols provide for a PPP connection?

to allow multiple Layer 3 protocols to operate over the same physical link

8. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1, the DCE device, has just been configured for PPP encapsulation with authentication. What series of commands will allow another router, the DTE device, to communicate over its serial 0/0/0 interface to router R1?

Router(config)# hostname R3

R3(config)# username R1 password Cisco

R3(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0

R3(config-if)# encapsulation ppp

R3(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.3 255.255.255.0

R3(config-if)# ppp authentication chap

9. What advantage does PPP have over HDLC for serial communications?

It supports authentication

10. Which PPP configuration option can be used to establish load balancing over the interfaces of a router?

multilink

11. Which three statements are correct about HDLC encapsulation? (Choose three.)

HDLC implementation in Cisco routers is proprietary.

HDLC is the default serial interface encapsulation on Cisco routers.

HDLC uses frame delimiters to mark the beginnings and ends of frames.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is not able to communicate with a neighbor router that is directly connected to serial 0/0/0. What is the reason for this?

The interface has been administratively shutdown with the shutdown command.

13. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true regarding the output shown?

Data is able to flow across this link.

14. Which serial communications DTE/DCE interface standard is used to provide high-speed connectivity of up to 52 Mbps between LANs and is found on many high-end Cisco routers?

EIA/TIA-612/613 (HSSI)

15. What does the demarcation point represent in data communication physical circuits?

physical point at which the public network ends and the private customer network begins

16. Which three statements are true regarding LCP? (Choose three.)

It is responsible for negotiating link establishment.

It terminates the link upon user request or the expiration of an inactivity timer.

It can test the link to determine if link quality is sufficient to bring up the link.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true regarding the output shown? (Choose two.)

The router has agreed on IP parameters.

The router has negotiated LCP successfully.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about PPP operation?

Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully.

19. Which three statements correctly describe PPP authentication? (Choose three.)

PAP sends passwords in clear text.

CHAP uses a challenge/response that is based on the MD5 hash algorithm.

CHAP uses repeated challenges for verification.

20. Which two options can LCP negotiate? (Choose two.)

link quality authentication

21. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the show interface Serial0/0 output, how many NCP sessions have been established?

two

CCNA 4 Module 1 V4.0

2009-08-01T20:08:00.000-07:00

1. Which statement about WAN protocols is correct?

Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.

2. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?

The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.

3. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?

ATM

4. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?

analog dialup

5. What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology?

Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.

6. Which statement is true about data connectivity between a customer and a service provider?

The segment between the demarcation point and the central office is known as the "last mile."

7. What are two advantages of an analog PSTN WAN connection? (Choose two.)

low cost
availability

8. What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadband connection?

number of subscribers

9. For digital lines, which device is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop?

CSU/DSU

10. At which two layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate? (Choose two.)

Physical Layer
Data Link Layer

11. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?

ATM

12. Which statement is true about the differences between a WAN and a LAN?

A WAN often relies on the services of carriers, such as telephone or cable companies, but a LAN does not.

13. Which networking device is typically used to concentrate the dial-in and dial-out traffic of multiple users to and from a network?

access server

14. Why is the call setup time of a circuit-switched WAN implementation considered a drawback?

Data cannot be transferred until a circuit has been established.

15. What three terms are associated with ISDN PRI? (Choose three.)

circuit switching
data bearer channels
time-division multiplexing

16. Which three features are identified with Frame Relay connections? (Choose three.)
CIR
DLCI
PVC

17. Which two devices are commonly used as data communications equipment? (Choose two.)

Modem
CSU/DSU

18. Which packet-switched WAN technology offers high-bandwidth connectivity capable of managing data, voice, and video all on the same infrastructure?

metro Ethernet

19. Which three WAN devices can be found in the cloud? (Choose three.)

ATM switches
core routers
Frame Relay switches

20. Which switching type will allow the communication devices in the provider network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?

dedicated switched lines

21. What type of connectivity is established when VPNs are used from the remote site to the private network?

Tunnels

22. Which term describes a device that will put data on the local loop?

DCE

CCNA 1 Module 9 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:40:00.001-07:00

1

In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
* Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2 Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

Network layer
Transport layer
* Physical layer
Application layer
Session layer
* Data-link layer

3 Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

* the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
* the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable

4 What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)

* addressing
* error detection
* frame delimiting
port identification
path determination
IP address resolution

5 When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

* The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

6 What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)

recognizes streams of bits
* identifies the network layer protocol
* makes the connection with the upper layers identifies the source and destination applications
* insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

7 What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?

MAC sublayer
Physical layer
* Logical Link
Control sublayer
Network layer

8 Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?

A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
* A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9 Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?

header field - preamble and stop frame
* data field - network layer packet
data field - physical addressing
trailer field - FCS and SoF

10 Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)

Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
* Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
* A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11 Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

* Collisions can decrease network performance.
It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

12 Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?

application
physical
transport
internet
data link
* network access

13 What is the primary purpose of ARP?

translate URLs to IP addresses
* resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
convert internal private addresses to external public addresses

14

Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

* No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

15

Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
* A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
* A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

16 Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)

dynamically assigned
* copied into RAM during system startup
layer 3 address
* contains a 3 byte OUI
* 6 bytes long
32 bits long

17 Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)

reduction in cross-talk
* minimizing of collisions
support for UTP cabling
division into broadcast domains
* increase in the throughput of communications

18 What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)

coaxial thicknet
**copper UTP
coaxial thinnet
**optical fiber
shielded twisted pair

19 Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

85
90
* BA
A1
B3
1C

20 After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?

the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
* any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
those that began transmitting at the same time

21

Refer to the exhibit. What command was executed on a host computer to produce the results shown?

route PRINT
* arp -a
arp -d
netstat
telnet

CCNA 1 Module 8 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:39:00.003-07:00

1 Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?

**backbone cable
horizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable

2 In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?

BNC
RJ-11
**RJ-45
Type F

3 When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
**when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router

4 With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?

**the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

5 Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?

Presentation
Transport
Data Link
**Physical

6 An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?

light injector
**OTDR
TDR
multimeter

7 XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)

coax
Cat4 UTP
**Cat5 UTP
**Cat6 UTP
STP

8 What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?

Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
**Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

9 What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)

**goodput
frequency
amplitude
**throughput
crosstalk
**bandwidth

10

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
**crossover cable
straight-through cable

11 In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?

coax
**fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP

12 Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?

13 Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?

electrical
optical
**wireless
acoustic

14 Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

**It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
**It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

15 Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
**generally uses lasers as the light source

16 What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?

**more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area

17 What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?

the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
**the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket

18 What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?

**create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media

CCNA 1 Module 7 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:39:00.001-07:00

1 Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)

**non-deterministic
**less overhead
one station transmits at a time
**collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing

2 What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?

provide routes across the internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
**facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
identify the services to which transported data is associated

3

Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?

1
2
4
**8
16

4 What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
**Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

5

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for http://www.server?

00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
**00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af

6 What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)

**They are 48 binary bits in length.
**They are considered physical addresses.
**They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They are used to determine the data path through the network.
They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.

7

Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)

source MAC - PC
source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
**source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
**source IP - PC
source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB

8 What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)

network layer addressing
**media sharing
application processes
**logical topology
intermediary device function

9 What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
**is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

10 What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

**Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
**Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data

11 Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)

Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
**Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
**Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.

12 Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?

LLC
**MAC
HDLC
NIC

13 What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)

**Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
**defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
**Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions

14 What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?

The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
**The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.

15 What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)

The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
The default gateway address should not be changed.
**The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
**The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

16 What is a function of the data link layer?

provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
**provides for the exchange data over a common local media

17 Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)

the Layer 3 protocol selected
**the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
**the physical layer implementation
**the number of hosts to be interconnected

18 What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?

define the logical topology
provide media access control
**support frame error detection
carry routing information for the frame

19 A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?

logical topology
**physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology

20

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
**Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

CCNA 1 Module 6 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:34:00.001-07:00

1 How many bits make up an IPv4 address?

128
64
48
32 **

2

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?

255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192 **
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.252

3

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?

IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33 **
IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1

4

Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.

/24
/16
/20
/27 **
/25
/28

5

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?

The router has an incorrect gateway.
Host A has an overlapping network address.
Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
NAT is required for the host A network. **

6 What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?

255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0 **
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

7 Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?

This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
This is a network address. **
This is not a valid address.

8 What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)

identifies an individual device
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain**
is altered as packet is forwarded
varies in length **
is used to forward packets **
uses flat addressing

9 What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?

10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000 **
10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000

10 A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?

172.16.0.0
172.16.192.0
172.16.192.128
172.16.192.160 **
172.16.192.168
172.16.192.176

11

Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?

The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host. **
There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
The default gateway device is not operating.
A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.

12 What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)

The router will discard the packet.**
The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host. **
The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.

13 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0 /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)

192.168.22.40 255.255.255.248
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.252
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.128
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254 **
192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192 **
192.168.22.101 255.255.255.224

14 Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)

larger address space **
faster routing protocols
data types and classes of service **
authentication and encryption **
improved host naming conventions
same addressing scheme as IPv4

15 Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?

binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
binary ANDing **

16 What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?

security
header format simplification
expanded addressing capabilities **
addressing simplification

17 Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)

172.168.33.1
10.35.66.70 **
192.168.99.5 **
172.18.88.90 **
192.33.55.89
172.35.16.5

18 Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)

NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router. **
Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself. **

19 Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)

172.16.4.127 /26
172.16.4.155 /26 **
172.16.4.193 /26 **
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.159 /27
172.16.4.207 /27 **

20 What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?

an internet
a network **
an octet
a radi

21

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?

The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host. **

22 Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)

LAN workstations
servers **
network printers **
routers **
remote workstations
laptops

CCNA 1 Module 5 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:33:00.001-07:00

1 In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?

**destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address

2 What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
**source and destination IP address

3 In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?

The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
**The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.

4 Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?

type-of-service
identification
flags
**time-to-live
header checksum

5 Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?

host portion
broadcast address
**network portion
gateway address

6

Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?

192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
**192.133.219.1

7 If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
**The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.

8 What is the purpose of a default gateway?

physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
**identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

9 What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?

dynamic
interior
**static
standard

10 When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)

The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
**The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
**The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

11 What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)

gateways
**purpose
physical addressing
software version
**geographic location
**ownership

12 What is a component of a routing table entry?

the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
**the next-hop address

13 Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)

**router
hub
switch
**firewall
access point
bridge

14 What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)

too few broadcasts
**performance degradation
**security issues
limited management responsibility
**host identification
protocol compatibility

15

Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?

3
**4
5
7
8
11

16 Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)

If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
**If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
**If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
**If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.

17

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?

10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
**10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0

18

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)

**Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
**Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.

19

Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)

**192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
**192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20 What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)

require no device configuration
**provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
**consume bandwidth to exchange route information
prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table

21 What statement describes the purpose of a default route?

A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
**A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

CCNA 1 Module 4 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:32:00.000-07:00

1

Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
**A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
**Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.

2 After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
**80
1024
1728

3 Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
acknowledgments
**source and destination

4 Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
**minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery

5

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
**reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header

6

Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
**session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect

7

Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
1850
**3431
3475

8 Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
**to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts

9 During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
**The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.

10 With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
**0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535

11 Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
**UDP
HTTP
DNS

12 What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
flow control
**low overhead
**connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements

13 What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
**window size
acknowledgments

14 What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
**source port

15 Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
**to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order

16 Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
identifies source and destination hosts
**identifies the communicating applications
**identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media

17 Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
encapsulation
**flow control
connectionless services
**session establishment
**numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery

18 Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
**transport
network

19

Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
**This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
**This is a TCP header.

20 Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
**TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.

21

Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?

Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host2.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host1.
**Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.

CCNA 1 Module 3 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:31:00.000-07:00

1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?

HTML
HTTP
** FTP
Telnet

2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)

** applications
dialogs
requests
** services
syntax

3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)

** centralized administration
does not require specialized software
** security is easier to enforce
lower cost implementation
provides a single point of failure

4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?

temporarily holds resolved entries
** used by the server to resolve names
sent by the client to during a query
passes authentication information between the server and client

5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?

HTTP
SSH
FQDN
** DNS
Telnet
SMTP

6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)

ARP
** DNS
PPP
** SMTP
** POP
ICMP

7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)

** acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
requires centralized account administration.
** hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
** can be used in client-server networks.
requires a direct physical connection between devices.
centralized authentication is required.

8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)

DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
** HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
SMTP supports file sharing
** Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access

9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)

MDA
IMAP
** MTA
POP
** SMTP
MUA

10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?

not widely available
** does not support encryption
consumes more network bandwidth
does not support authentication

11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)

routes email to the MDA on other servers
** receives email from the client's MUA
receives email via the POP3 protocol
** passes email to the MDA for final delivery
** uses SMTP to route email between servers
delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol

12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)

ASP
FTP
HTML
** HTTP
** HTTPS
IP

13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)

User accounts are centralized.
** Security is difficult to enforce.
Specialized operating system software is required.
File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
** A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.

14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?

physical
session
network
presentation
** application
transport

15.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?

** 80
1261
15533
3912
65520

16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)

scalable
one way data flow
** decentralized resources
centralized user accounts
** resource sharing without a dedicated server

17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?

DHCP
DNS
** SMB
SMTP
Telnet

18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)

use daemons
** initiate data exchanges
are repositories of data
** may upload data to servers
listen for requests from servers

19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?

provides segmentation of data
provides encryption and conversion of data
** provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices

20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?

ceases all connections to the service
denies multiple connections to a single daemon
suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
** uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service

CCNA 1 Module 2 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:30:00.000-07:00

1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
Network
Transport
Physical**
Data Link**
Session

2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
supports error detection**
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection

3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.**
The process port number is added.

4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch**

5. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
physical
data link
network**
transport

6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
determine pathways for data**
initiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signals**
originate the flow of data
manage data flows**
final termination point for data flow

7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
the path to use to reach the destination host**
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data

8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical**
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application

9.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Network A -- WAN
Network B -- WAN**
Network C -- LAN**
Network B -- MAN
Network C -- WAN
Network A -- LAN**

10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication**
enables consistent network paths for communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device**
enables the reassembly of complete messages**
tracks delay between end devices

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexing**
encapsulation

12. What is a PDU?
corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
a layer specific encapsulation**

13.

Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
the destination device
an end device**
an intermediate device
a media device

14.

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
E, F, H, I, J**

15.

Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
source
end
transfer
**intermediary

16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.**
The network is administered by a single organization.**
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common** organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).

17.

Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
WAN
MAN
**LAN
WLAN

18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
path determination and packet switching
data representation, encoding, and control
reliability, flow control, and error detection
**detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
the division of segments into packets

19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
manage data flows
**originate data flow
retime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data

20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
**to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
define the structure of layer specific PDU's**
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
**outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit hardware compatibility
**require layer dependent encapsulations
eliminate standardization among vendogrs

CCNA 1 Module 11 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:19:00.000-07:00

1

Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
UBAMA# configure terminal
UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
UBAMA(config)# line console 0
UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
**UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

2 In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?
after a system restart
**as the commands are entered
when logging off the system
when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration

3

Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?

enable password class
line console 0
password ccna

enable secret cisco
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna

enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna

enable secret cisco
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A

**enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A

4 When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
AUX
Ethernet
**Console
Telnet
SSH

5

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
RouterB(config-if)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login
**RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login

6 Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
show running-config
show startup-config
**show interfaces
show ip route
show version
show memory

7

Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
line configuration mode
user executive mode
global configuration mode
**privileged executive mode
interface configuration mode
**enable mode

8 What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
Router# name Fontana
Router# hostname Fontana
Router(config)# name Fontana
**Router(config)# hostname Fontana

9

The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
**Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
**Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
**Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

10

Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
**IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

11

Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?
NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
**NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
NA-SW1(config-if)# description description

12 Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)
show flash
show NVRAM
**show startup-config
**show running-config
show version

13 Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
**hot keys
context-check
**context-sensitive
structured check
command override
**command syntax check

14

Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
The host A is turned off.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
**The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
**The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

15 Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?
Ctrl-C
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-R
**Ctrl-Shift-6
Ctrl-Z

16

The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?
Ping router B S0/1 connection from router C.
Trace the connection between router B to router C S0/1.
Issue a show ip route command in router B to verify routing is enabled.
**Issue a show interfaces command on router C.

17 In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?
RAM
ROM
**Flash
NVRAM

18 On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?

Option 1 Console

19 A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
Telnet
Console
AUX
**SSH

CCNA 1 Module 10 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:18:00.000-07:00

1

Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
connecting a PC to a router's console port
**connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
**connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

2 Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
They propagate broadcasts.
They enlarge collision domains.
**They segment broadcast domains.
**They interconnect different network technologies.
**Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.

3

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
router
**hub
switch
wireless access point

4 A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
STP
**UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber

5

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
**Five broadcast domains are present.
**Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
xFive networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.

6 Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
RJ 11
**DB 60
**Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
**smart serial
RJ 45

7 How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
**2046
2048
4094
4096

8

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?

both host A and B would be successful
host A would be successful, host B would fail
**host B would be successful, host A would fail
both Host A and B would fail

9

Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
192.168.1.1
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.3.1
**192.168.3.54

10

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
**Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
**Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
**Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

11 A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
**255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

12

Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?
wireless access point
router
hub
**switch

13

Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
2
**3
4
5

14 What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
**loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device

15 To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
crossover cable
straight through cable
**rollover cable
V.35 cable

16 What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
**greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
**limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
**greater bandwidth potential
easily terminated

17

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
**255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

18 Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
255.255.0.0
**255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

19 What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
cross-over
straight-through
**rollover
patch cable

20 Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
**console interface

21 What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
direct configuration of the device
**cable color code association
cable selection and configuration
use of cable testers to determine pinouts
**the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
**the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

22 Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
hub
switch
bridge
**router
repeater

23

Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
**1
3
4
5
7

24
What are two common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose two.)
cable color code association
cable selection and configuration
use of cable testers to determine pinouts
**the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port
**the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs

CCNA 1 Module 1 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:17:00.000-07:00

1. Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
- They are non-network connections.
They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network.
They are synchronous serial ports.
- They are used for initial router configuration.
- They are asynchronous serial ports.
They are accessed using their assigned IP address.

2. The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)
- debugging.
- password recovery.
routing data between networks.
- troubleshooting.
connecting one router to another.

3. Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?
connects peripherals in a single location.
connects multiple networks in a single building.
provides connectivity on a LAN.
- provides connectivity over a large geographic area.

4. An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)
- switching.
static addressing.
IETF standardization.
- dynamic or static routing.
- consistent end-to-end addressing.

5. ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial configuration? (Choose three.)
straight-through cable.
- terminal emulation software.
- rollover cable.
- RJ-45 to DB-9 connector.
V.35 cable.

6.Terminal emulation software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
bits per second.
- data bits.
- parity.
- stop bits.
flow control.

7. Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)
hubs.
- routers.
- communication servers.
transceivers.
- modems.
multi-port repeaters.

8. Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)
contains startup configuration file.
- stores routing table.
- holds fast switching cache.
retains contents when power is removed.
- stores running configuration file.

9. Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
can be accessed remotely.
- does not depend on network services.
- displays startup and error messages by default.
does not require special components.

10. Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.)
- CPU.
hard drive.
- input/output interfaces.
keyboard.
monitor.
- system bus.

11. During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for connecting a PC to the console port?
twisted.
crossover.
- rollover.
straight.

12. A router is composed of many internal components. Which of the following components stores a copy of the router's configuration file?
metal-oxide memory.
read only memory.
flash memory.
- non-volatile random access memory.

13. What contains the instructions that a router uses to control the flow of traffic through its interfaces?
packet configuration.
- configuration files.
flash memory.
internal components.

14. Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router. Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the LAN? (Choose two.)
a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.
a crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch.
a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch.
- straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
- a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.

15. Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?
volatile random access memory.
read only memory.
- non-volatile random access memory.
flash memory.

16. Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose two.)
- physical layer.
application layer.
transport layer.
- data link layer.
session layer.

17. Which of the following are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)
provide temporary memory for the router configuration files.
- connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit.
- can be on the motherboard or a separate module.
hold the IOS image.
- connect the router to LANs and WANs.

18. Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a router? (Choose three.)
- troubleshooting problems.
- monitoring the system.
capturing LAN data packets.
- configuring the router.
routing data packets.

19. What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?
ARP tables.
bridging tables.
- routing tables.
switching tables.

20. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
stores the routing table.
- retains contents when power is removed.
- stores the startup configuration file.
contains the running configuration file.
stores the ARP table.

21. Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose two.)
holds the startup configuration by default.
- can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules.
- stores Cisco IOS software images.
stores routing table information by default.
maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted.

CCNA 1 Final V4.0

2009-07-17T23:15:00.000-07:00

1.

Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C...

Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TSP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of router Y. The packet inside the captured frame has the IP source address 172.16.1.5 and the destination IP address is 172.16.7.24 . What is the source MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?

0040.8596.DE82

**0060.7320.B826

0060.7320.D632

0010.4F74.AC09

0040.8596.DE81

2.

Refer to the exhibit. An employee wants to access the organization intranet from home. Which intermediary device should be used to connect the organization intranet to the Internet to enable this access?
hub
switch
**router
wireless access point

3.

The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?

Refer to the exhibit. The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?

IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
**IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 196.1.105.6
IP address: 10.10.9.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35

4. Which range of port numbers is assigned dynamically to client applications when initiating a connection to the server?
0 to 255
**49152 to 65535
1024 to 49151
0 to 1023

5.

Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
**1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

6. Refer to the exhibit. While configuring a network, a technician wired each end of a Category 5e cable as shown. Which two statements are true about this setup? (Choose two.)

**The cable is suitable for connecting a switch to a router Ethernet port.
**The cable is suitable for connecting dissimilar types of devices.
The cable is unusable and must be rewired.
The cable is terminated in a way that the transmit pin is wired to the receive pin.
The cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)

**Four collision domains are present.
One logical network is represented.
**Two broadcast domains are present.
Three networks are needed.
Three logical address ranges are required.

8.

nslookup command on the PC

Refer to exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server used by the host?

**10.10.10.32
192.168.1.5
192.168.1.99
192.168.2.100

9. Which subnet mask will allow 2040 hosts per subnet on the IP network 10.0.0.0?
255.255.0.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.252.0
**255.255.248.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.128

10. Which three addresses belong to the category of private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
**10.0.0.1
127.0.0.1
150.0.0.1
**172.16.0.1
**192.168.0.1
200.100.50.1

11.

Host A is transmitting data to host B. Which address combination will be used as the data leaves the Router1 Fa0/1 interface?

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. Which address combination will be used as the data leaves the Router1 Fa0/1 interface?
Destination IP: 192.168.72.2 Source MAC: 0007.C2B4.3421
**Destination IP: 192.168.10.4 Source MAC: 0030.8596.DE81
Destination IP: 192.168.10.4 Source MAC: 0007.C2B4.3421
Destination IP: 192.168.72.2 Source MAC: 0030.8596.DE81

12. Which memory contents will change as a result of using the Router# erase startup-config command on a router?
RAM
ROM
flash
**NVRAM

13. What are two characteristics of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
**It segments and reorders the data.
It exchanges the frames between nodes.
**It defines the method by which network devices place data onto the media.
It manages the transfer of data between the processes that run on each host.
It retrieves signals from the media and restores them to their bit representations.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide the PC with Internet access. Which IP address can be assigned to router interface Fa0/0?
10.0.0.1
172.16.1.1
**209.165.201.1
192.168.1.1

15.

A user wants to access the Internet from the PC. A part of the running configuration of the router is shown

Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to access the Internet from the PC. A part of the running configuration of the router is shown. Which default gateway IP address should be configured at the PC to enable this access?
10.1.192.2
10.1.192.54
**10.1.192.1
192.31.7.1

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration. What type of cable is required for this connection?
straight-through cable
crossover cable
**rollover cable
serial cable

17. A network administrator wants to restrict access to the router privileged EXEC mode. Which password should the administrator use?
**enable
aux
console
VTY

18. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
**Devices listen to the media and transmit data only when they cannot detect another signal on the media.
**All devices on the media can hear all communications.
Devices communicate based on a configured priority.
After a collision occurs, the devices that caused the collision have first priority when attempting to retransmit.
**When a collision occurs, all devices stop transmitting for a randomly generated period of time.
CSMA/CD uses a token system to avoid collisions.

19. Refer to the exhibit. The router of the company failed and was replaced. After the replacement, hosts C and D in the Education office are able to ping each other, but they are unable to access the hosts in the Accounts office. What is the likely cause of the problem?
The IP address at the fa0/0 interface of the router is incorrectly configured.
**The subnet mask at the fa0/1 interface of the router is incorrectly entered.
The IP address at the serial interface of the router is incorrectly configured.
The hosts in the Accounts office are not on the same subnet as the hosts in the Education office.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Host A and B are unable to communicate with each other. What is the reason for this?
Host A is assigned a network address.
Host B is assigned a multicast address.
Host A and host B belong to different networks.
**The gateway addresses are network addresses.

21. Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to view the current configuration. The output of the ipconfig/all command is displayed in the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the output? (Choose three.)
The IP address is obtained from the DHCP server.
**This PC cannot communicate with other networks.
**The network can have 14 hosts.
The prefix of the computer address is /25.
The IP address is routable on the Internet.
**The assigned address is a private address.

22. Which two types of media can provide bandwidth up to 1 Gb/s? (Choose two.)

10 BASE-T
100 BASE-T
100 BASE-FX
**1000 BASE-TX
**1000 BASE-SX

23. Refer to the exhibit. RouterB is configured properly.
The Ethernet interface Fa0/0 of RouterA is configured with the use of the commands that are shown However, a ping from the Fa0/0 interface of RouterA to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB is unsuccessful. What action should be taken on RouterA to solve this problem?
Use the description command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
Configure the clock rate of the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
**Use the no shutdown command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
Reboot the router.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to connect to host B on a different network. Which three IP addresses can be assigned to host A to enable this connectivity? (Choose three.)

172.16.11.36
172.16.11.95
**172.16.11.88
**172.16.11.70
172.16.11.64
**172.16.11.67

25. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access e-mail. Which destination socket number will be used to communicate this request?
10.10.1.2:53
0007.A7B8.0008:25
10.10.1.3:23
**10.10.1.3:25

26. A network administrator uses the copy startup-config running-config command on a router to make configuration changes. Which component is affected by this command?
ROM
**NVRAM
RAM
flash

27. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, Hosts A and B are exchanging segments at the transport layer. Which two statements are true about this exchange? (Choose two.)

Host A is transferring files to host B using FTP.
**Host A will send the next segment containing data for this session starting with byte number 11
The segment from the destination host indicates that 11 bytes have been received successfully
**Host A is initiating a Telnet session to host B
Host B can send the next segment of the data starting with byte number 2

28. How does the transport layer allow a host to maintain multiple, simultaneous communication streams across different applications?
It uses error control mechanisms.
**It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
It uses multiple ports.

29. What information is contained in the header of Layer 3 to help data delivery?
port number
device physical address
**destination host logical address
virtual connection identifier

30. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command used from host X to host Y was successful. What is the correct sequence of intermediary network devices that will be present in the trace list?
switch A, switch D, switch G, host Y
**router B, router E, router F, host Y
switch A, router B, switch D, router E, router F, switch G, host Y
switch A, router B, router F, switch G, host Y

31. While configuring a router, a network technician wants to name the router. Which prompt should the technician see when entering the hostname command?
Router>
Router#
**Router(config)#
Router(config-line)#

32. An organization has decided to use IP addresses in the range 172.20.128.0 to 172.20.143.255. Which combination of network ID and subnet mask identifies all IP addresses in this range?
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.0.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.224.0
**Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.240.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240
33. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
star
**ring
point-to-point
multi-access
34. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many broadcast domains are there in this topology?

3
**5
7
9
11

35. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid network addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
192.168.9.64/28
**192.168.9.146/28
192.168.9.96/28
**192.168.9.129/26
**192.168.9.51/26
192.168.9.64/26

36. Two routers are connected via their serial ports in a lab environment. The routers are configured with valid IP addresses, but they cannot ping each other. The show interface serial0/0 command shows that the serial0/0 interface is up but the line protocol is down. What could be the cause of this problem?
The no shutdown command has not been applied to the interfaces.
**The clock rate command has not been entered on the DCE interface.
The interface timers are not cleared.
The FastEthernet interface is emulating a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.

37. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?
switch
hub
**router
host

38. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the netstat command to display the open, active, and running TCP connections on a networked host. The exhibit displays the output of this command. Which two facts can be determined from this output for accessing www.cisco.com? (Choose two.)

**The source port indicates that the session is an http session.
The connection is not successful.
**The source port of the host is 3166.
The destination port is 80.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
The source port indicates that a UDP session has been initiated.

39. Which OSI layer uses the header information to reassemble the data segments into streams?

application layer
network layer
presentation layer
session layer
**transport layer

40. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
The UDP transport layer protocol provides for low overhead data delivery.
**The TCP transport layer protocol uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
**The TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
**The TCP transport layer protocol provides services to direct the data packets to their destination hosts.
The UDP transport layer protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.
The UDP transport layer protocol keeps track of all the data segments in each conversation.

41. To enhance security in a network, the network administrator uses these commands:

Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# password j1mdi2
Router(config-line)# login
What two conclusions are evident from these commands? (Choose two.)
**Users who attempt to connect to the console port of the router must enter a password.
**The entries permit access through the console by the use of j1mdi2 as the password.
The entries eliminate the need for authentication.
Access through the console will be denied because the console configuration is incomplete.
The entries prevent passwords from being displayed as plain text.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
**Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - crossover cable

43. Refer to the exhibit. The headers added at each layer are shown.
Which layer adds the destination and source process numbers to ensure that data is delivered to the correct application?
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
**transport layer

44. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
It uses the last octet of the IP address to identify the network.
**It supports data communications between networks.
**It is configured by the network technician.
It is a 16-bit IPv4 address.
It prevents broadcasts.
**It uniquely identifies each host.

45. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is connected to a network. Which action will verify that the PC can communicate with its default gateway?
Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command.
Use the ipconfig command.
Use the ipconfig/all command.
**Use the ping 10.0.0.254 command.

46. Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a frame with the destination MAC address as FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. What action will the switch take for this frame?
It will drop the frame.
It will send the frame back to host A.
**It will send the frame to all hosts except host A.
It will forward the frame to the default gateway.

47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using a secure connection. Which statement is true about this connection?
The Telnet server process is running on PC1.
Only the exchange of the Telnet username and password is encrypted.
The GET request is sent to RouterA to retrieve data.
**The SSH service is used to connect PC1 to RouterB.

48. Which OSI layer uses the header information to reassemble the data segments into streams?
application layer
network layer
presentation layer
session layer
**transport layer

49. Refer to the exhibit. A router, the table of which is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.9.4. How will the router treat the packet?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet via FastEthernet 0/1.
**It will forward the packet to the next hop address.
It will forward the packet to 172.16.2.0

50. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable that connects the network components on that segment. Which three segments have the correct cables installed? (Choose three.)

**segment 1
segment 2
segment 3
**segment 4
**segment 5
segment 6

TEST IS ABOVE 91%

CCNA 4 Module 8 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:12:00.001-07:00

1. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
cable types
connector types
• interface identifiers
• DLCI for virtual circuits
operating system versions

2. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?
physical
• data link
network
transport

3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
incorrect encapsulation
incorrect STP configuration
incorrect ARP mapping
• incorrect clock rate

4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
• information about the network design
IP addressing allocation on the network
requirements about the service provider setup
requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic
• expected performance under normal operating conditions

5.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)
Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only.
• Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
• Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

6. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers.
• The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model.
The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network.
The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on separate hosts.
• The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.

7. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
• The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down approach with the
application servers in the data center.
The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing tables, and follow up using appropriate STP show commands to find a loop if routing is working normally.
Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one until the error condition is fixed.

8. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
• bottom up
top down
divide and conquer
middle out

9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
• baselining tool
knowledge base
protocol analyzer
cable tester

10. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
cable analyzer
• network analyzer
protocol analyzer
knowledge base

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?
physical
data link
network
• application

12. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
narrowing the scope
gathering symptoms from suspect devices
analyzing existing symptoms
• determining ownership

13.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
• A carrier detect signal is present.
• Keepalives are being received successfully.
Default encapsulation is used on this serial link.
Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size.
The reliability of this link is very low.
The LCP negotiation phase is complete.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
• The web server should be tested for an application layer problem.
Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
• The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem has to be in the upper layers.

15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
application
transport
network
data link
• physical

16. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
physical
• data link
network
transport

17. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
192.168.3.32 0.0.0.7
192.168.3.32 0.0.0.15
• 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
192.168.3.40 0.0.0.15

18. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
• transport layer
• application layer

19. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
All layers
• Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4
Layer 6 and Layer 7

20. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
Determine fault.
Get to know the user to build trust.
• Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
Impress the user with use of technical language and skills.
• Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
• Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.

CCNA 4 Module 7 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:11:00.001-07:00

1. Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?
Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.
The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.
Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of the network.
• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.

2. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?
show spanning-tree
• show interfaces trunk*
show cdp neighbors
show interfaces
show ip interface brief

3. How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?
• They select the functions that align with the business goals.
They select the functions that occur at the network core.
They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.
They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.

4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have been added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?
• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.
The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.
The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.
The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC subnet.

5. Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)
Provide redundant connections to all end users.
Add another core switch to increase redundancy.
• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.
Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.
• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.

6. Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?
discarding
Forwarding
learning
listening

7. A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept? (Choose two.)
• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.
Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.
• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.
Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.
Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.

8. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?
• R1*
S1
R3
S2
R5
S3

9. Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?
Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.
Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.
Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.
• Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.
Use the switchport access vlanvlan number command from interface configuration mode to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?
Add an enable password to the switch.
• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.
Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.
Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?
• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.
EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.
EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.
EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.

12. In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?
the metric used for a particular route
• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface
the priority number given to the device for the election process
the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number
the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing

13. Which protocol allows a switch port to transition directly to the forwarding state after a failure is detected?
• STP*
BGP
RSTP
HSRP

14. A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?
NBAR
a pilot network
a route summary
• a network simulator*
a physical topology map

15. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?
Test Description
Test Procedures
Design and Topology Diagram
Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria

16. While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?
• Appendix
Test Procedures
Test Description
Actual Results and Conclusions
Anticipated Results and Success Criteria

17. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?
inbound on Fa0/0 of R3
outbound on Fa0/0 of R3
inbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/1 of R3
inbound on Fa0/1 of R2
outbound on S0/0 of R2

18. Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.*
Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.
Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.
Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics.

19. What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?
a firewall at the network edge
• port security at the access design layer
port security at the distribution design layer
IP access control lists at the access design layer

20. Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)
Switch1 is the root bridge.
Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.
• Based on the entries in the "Role" column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.
Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.

21. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
root
backup
alternate
• Designated

CCNA 4 Module 6 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:10:00.002-07:00

1. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
users are on a shared medium
uses RF signal transmission
• local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS
• user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO

2. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
• channel widths
access method
maximum data rate
• modulation techniques
compression techniques

3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
use higher RF frequencies
• allocate an additional channel
• subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less
use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic

4. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
cable
• DSL
ISDN
POTS

5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator hasdecided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the resultof this solution?
A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.
• The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN clientsoftware.
Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when supporting asingle user environment.
Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup connections usingPOTS.

6. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
accounting
• authentication
authorization
data availability
• data confidentiality
• data integrity

7. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
• digital certificates
ESP
hashing algorithms
• smart cards
WPA

8. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
digital certificates
• encryption
• encapsulation
hashing
passwords

9. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
• AES
• DES
AH
hash
MPLS
• RSA

10. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
Diffie-Hellman
digital certificate
• pre-shared key
RSA signature

11. Which statement describes cable?
• Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstreamfrequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)
Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.
Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.

12. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at theteleworker's site?
a WiMAX tower
a one-way multicast satellite
• a WiMAX receiver
an access point connected to the company WLAN

13. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX)telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies
• covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access
• connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users

14. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statementdescribes the situation observed by the technician?
• Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
Data is flowing downstream.
Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.
The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.

15.

Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network.
Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installedon the edge of the network.
Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge of the network.
• All locations can support VPN connectivity.

16. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
• AH
L2TP
• ESP
GRE
PPTP

17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
ATM
CHAP
• IPsec
IPX
MPLS
• PPTP

18.

Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
a GRE tunnel
a site-to-site VPN
• a remote-access VPN
the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection

19.

Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.
The devices must have the VPN client software installed.
The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.
• The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
• The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
• The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.

CCNA 4 Module 5 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:10:00.001-07:00

1. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?
blocked in and out of all interfaces
blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces
• permitted in and out of all interfaces
blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces

2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
packet size
• protocol suite
• source address
• destination address
source router interface
destination router interface

3. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?
by destination UDP port
by protocol type
• by source IP address
by source UDP port
by destination IP address

4. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
• Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
• Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
close to the source
• close to the destination
on an Ethernet port
on a serial port

6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)
• An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
• A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
• Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

7. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
ccess-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any

• FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
All traffic is implicitly denied.
FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

9. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?
• The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
Both ACLs are applied to the interface.
The network administrator receives an error.
Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.

10.

Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web
server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?
ISP Fa0/0 outbound
R2 S0/0/1 inbound
• R3 Fa0/0 inbound
R3 S0/0/1 outbound

11. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)
Only named ACLs allow comments.
• Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.
• Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.

12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)
• extended ACL
reflexive ACL
console logging
• authentication
• Telnet connectivity
user account with a privilege level of 15

13.

Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.
• It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.
It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.

14. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the
company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company.
What type of ACL is most appropriate?
dynamic
port-based
• reflexive
time-based

15.

Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?
TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

16. The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?
• The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
The access list statements are misconfigured.
All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.
No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.

17.

Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?
Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.
The access list is applied in the wrong direction.
The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.
• The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.

18.

Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
• Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.
Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.
Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.

19. Which statement about standard ACLs is true
Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.
• They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.
When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface.

20. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?
Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.
Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.
Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant message.
• In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.

21. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?
the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol
the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination
the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic
• the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list

22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network
address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?
172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255
172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255

23. Which two statements accurately describe the characteristics of wildcard masks in an ACL? (Choose two.)
Wildcard masks are the inverse of the subnet mask.
The word "any" indicates that all corresponding bits must be matched.
• The word "host" corresponds to a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 in an ACL statement.
• A wildcard mask of 0.0.255.255 can be used to create a match for an entire Class B network.
A wildcard mask bit of 1 indicates that the corresponding bit in the address must be matched.

24.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?
It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.
It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
• It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.

25.

Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
• Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.
Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.
Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.
Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.

26.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?
The ACL allows only the mail traffic to the server; the rest of the traffic is blocked.
• The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.
The ACL permits TCP packets only if a connection is established from the server to the network 172.22.0.0/16.
The ACL allows only TCP traffic from users on network 172.22.40.0/24 to access the server; TCP traffic from any other sources is blocked.

CCNA 4 Module 4 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:09:00.002-07:00

1. Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)
Securing a network against internal threats is a lower priority because company employees represent a low security risk.
**Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.
Assuming a company locates its web server outside the firewall and has adequate backups of the web server, no further security measures are needed to protect the web server because no harm can come from it being hacked.
Established network operating systems like UNIX and network protocols like TCP/IP can be used with their default settings because they have no inherent security weaknesses.
** Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.

2. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)
Strong network passwords mitigate most DoS attacks.
Worms require human interaction to spread, viruses do not.
Reconnaissance attacks are always electronic in nature, such as ping sweeps or port scans.
** A bruteforce attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.
** Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.

3. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?
reconnaissance
access
** DoS
worm
virus
Trojan horse

4. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening email messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?
DoS
DDoS
** virus
access
reconnaissance

5. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)
The default security settings for modern server and PC operating systems can be trusted to have secure default security settings.
Intrusion prevention systems can log suspicious network activity, but there is no way to counter an attack in progress without user intervention.
** Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.
Phishing attacks are best prevented by firewall devices.
** Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.

6. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?
securing
** monitoring
testing
improvement
reconnaissance

7. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)
provide a checklist for the installation of secure servers
describe how the firewall must be configured
** document the resources to be protected
** identify the security objectives of the organization
identify the specific tasks involved in hardening a router

8. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)
** It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
** It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It is developed by end users.
It is developed after all security devices have been fully tested.
** It defines how to handle security incidents.
It should be encrypted as it contains backups of all important passwords and keys.

9. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)
** By default, name queries are sent to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255.
DNS name queries require the ip directedbroadcast command to be enabled on the Ethernet interfaces of all routers.
Using the global configuration command ip nameserver on one router enables the DNS services on all routers in the network.
** The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.

10. What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)
It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.
** It offers the ability to instantly disable nonessential system processes and services.
It automatically configures the router to work with SDM.
It ensures the greatest compatibility with other devices in your network.
** It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?

** The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP server is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.

12. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600dmz.1214? (Choose two.)
The "mz" in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS.
The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.
** The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.
** The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)

The Cisco IOS file has an invalid checksum.
The TFTP client on the router is corrupt.
** The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
** The TFTP server software has not been started.
There is not enough room on the TFTP server for the software.

14. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)
Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.
Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.
Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.
** Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
** Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.

15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)
** ROM monitor
boot ROM
Cisco IOS
** direct connection through the console port
network connection through the Ethernet port
network connection through the serial port

16. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?

The password is sent in plain text.
A Telnet session is established with R1.
** The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.
The R1 home page is displayed and allows the user to download Cisco IOS images and configuration files.

17. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?
SDM can run only on Cisco 7000 series routers.
**SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.
SDM should be used for complex router configurations.
SDM is supported by every version of the Cisco IOS software.

18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?
** Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.
Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration.
Reload the IOS from a TFTP server from ROMMON.
Reconfigure the router using setup mode.

19. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?
Schedule antivirus scans.
Schedule antispyware scans .
** Schedule training for all users.
Schedule operating systems updates.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router. What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?

SDM will automatically invoke the AutoSecure command.
SDM will generate a report that will outline the proper configuration actions to alleviate the security issues.
SDM will create a configuration file that can be copy and pasted into the router to reconfigure the services.
** SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security changes.

21. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the "ip ospf messagedigestkey 1 md5 cisco" statement in the configuration?

** to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates
to save bandwidth by compressing the traffic
to enable SSH encryption of traffic
to create an IPsec tunnel

22. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?

The commands filter UDP and TCP traffic coming to the router.
The commands disable any TCP or UDP request sent by the routing protocols.
** The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
The commands disable the BOOTP and TFTP server services to prevent security vulnerabilities.

CCNA 4 Module 3 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:09:00.001-07:00

1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?
• Customers can define their virtual circuit needs in far greater combinations, with increments as small as 64 kbps.
Customers pay for an end-to-end connection that includes the local loop and the network link.
• Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.
Connecting new sites requires new lower cost circuit installations when compared to ISDN dialup costs or adding additional
hardware for leased service.

2. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?
local address identifying a destination router across a Frame Relay network
• locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit
logical address identifying the interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch
logical address used to identify the DCE

4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?
ISDN circuit
limited access circuit
switched parallel circuit
• virtual circuit

5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
ARP
RARP
Proxy ARP
• Inverse ARP
• LMI status messages
ICMP

6.

Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?
• 110
115
220
225

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)
The broadcasts will be forwarded to 10.1.1.1.
• The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.
DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1
• Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22.
Inverse-ARP will now add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the Frame Relay map table using DLCI 22.

8. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the router?
It helps to conserve IP addresses.
It establishes multiple PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces.
• It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops.
It requires the configuration of the encapsulation command on the subinterface.

9. Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.)
puts a hold on accepting frames in excess of the CIR
• drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set
reduces the number of frames it sends over the link
re-negotiates flow control with the connected device
• sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link
• sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link

10.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)
The IP address of the local Frame Relay interface is 172.16.1.4.
• The local DLCI number is 401.
• Inverse ARP is being used on this connection.
This interface is in the active state and in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.
Multicast is not enabled on this connection.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.
The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.
• The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.
• The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.
The address of the Frame Relay switch is not in the routing table.

12.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?
It is currently not transmitting data.
It is in the process of establishing the PVC.
It has put a hold on processing frames in excess of the CIR.
• It is experiencing congestion.

13.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely cause?
• The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword.
The DLCIs on each end of the PVCs are not identical.
The R2 S0/0/0 interface has not been brought online.
The LMI or Inverse ARP or both are not working.

14. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?
Multipoint interfaces will automatically forward routing broadcasts but will consume more IP addresses than point-to-point
subinterfaces will consume.
• Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.
Interfaces with multiple PVCs require a separate subinterface for each PVC.
Multipoint configurations cannot use subinterfaces.

15.

Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that
interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of
172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface
on HQ be configured to complete the topology?
one multipoint subinterface
• two point-to-point subinterfaces
with the physical interface configured with two ip addresses
one IP address on a point-to-point subinterface and one IP address on the physical interface

16. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?
• To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command
coupled with the broadcast keyword.
Inverse ARP must be enabled to turn routing update broadcasts into unicast traffic that can be propagated to other Frame Relay
nodes.
Because broadcast traffic is not supported, RIPv1 cannot be implemented on Frame Relay networks.
To forward broadcast routing updates, dynamic mapping must be enabled.

17.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing?
Split horizon must be disabled.
The LMI type must be specified.
Logical subinterfaces must be used instead.
• The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.

18.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?

R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103

R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.3 301

R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 201

R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp

• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301

19.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?
The Frame Relay LMI DLCI has been incorrectly configured as DLCI 1023.
The Frame Relay LMI type has been changed from its default.
The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.
• The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output?
LMI updates are not being received properly.
• The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration.
Cisco HDLC is used as a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.
The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.

21.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?
Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201.
• Serial 0/0/0 has the feature frame-relay inverse-arp enabled.
Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an IP address of 172.16.4.3.
Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with the command frame-relay map ip 172.16.4.3 201 broadcast.

22.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully?
R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301 broadcast

R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast

R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast

• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast

CCNA 4 Module 2 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:08:00.000-07:00

CCNA 4 Module 1 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:06:00.000-07:00

1. At which two layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate? (Choose two.)
**Physical Layer
**Data Link Layer
Network Layer
Transport Layer
Presentation Layer
Application Layer

2. Which three WAN devices can be found in the cloud? (Choose three.)
** ATM switches
**core routers
CSU/DSU
Ethernet switches
**Frame Relay switches
repeaters

3. Which networking device is typically used to concentrate the dialin and dialout traffic of multiple users to and from a network?
core router
** access server
Frame Relay switch
ATM switch

4. Which packetswitched WAN technology offers highbandwidth connectivity capable of managing data, voice, and video all on the same infrastructure?
Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
**metro Ethernet
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)

5. Which three features are identified with Frame Relay connections? (Choose three.)
** CIR
**DLCI
DSLAM
** PVC
SPID
53byte cells

6. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?
**ATM
ISDN
Frame Relay
metro Ethernet

7. What are two advantages of an analog PSTN WAN connection? (Choose two.)
** low cost
** availability
traffic encryption
available bandwidth
support for voice and video

8. What three terms are associated with ISDN PRI? (Choose three.)
DLCI
** circuit switching
packet switching
** data bearer channels
switched virtual circuits
** time-division multiplexing

9. What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadband connection?
smaller cells
** number of subscribers
committed information rate
distance from the central office of the provider

10. What type of connectivity is established when VPNs are used from the remote site to the private network?
PVCs
DLCIs
**tunnels
virtual circuits
dedicated Layer 2 links

11. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?
ATM
ISDN
** analog dialup
T1 Leased Line

12. For digital lines, which device is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop?
**CSU/DSU
Frame Relay switch
ISDN switch
modem
PBX switch

13. Which term describes a device that will put data on the local loop?
DLCI
DTE
** DCE
BRI
PRI

14. Which switching type will allow the communication devices in the provider network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
circuitswitched
dedicated switched lines
frame-switched
**packet-switched

15. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?
X.25
DSL
** ATM
ISDN BRI
ISDN PRI

16. Which two devices are commonly used as data communications equipment? (Choose two.)
** modem
router
**CSU/DSU
ISDN switch
Ethernet switch

17. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?
The purpose of the access layer is to provide very high bandwidth communications between network devices.
Most security screening to prevent unauthorized entry to the network happens at the core layer.
Untrusted external connections are segmented from the rest of the network at all three levels.
The core layer uses high speed equipment to provide policybased connectivity.
** The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.

18. Which statement is true about data connectivity between a customer and a service provider?
Normally the CSU/DSU is the designated demarcation point for the service provider but not the customer.
** The segment between the demarcation point and the central office is known as the "last mile."
The local loop is the segment between the CSU/DSU and the serial port on a router.
Putting data on the local loop is the responsibility of the DTE.

19. Which statement is true about the differences between a WAN and a LAN?
WANs generally support higher bandwidth than LANs support.
A WAN link typically traverses shorter geographic distances than a LAN link traverses.
** A WAN often relies on the services of carriers, such as telephone or cable companies, but a LAN does not.
All WAN implementations generally use the same Layer 2 protocol but there are many accepted LAN Layer 2 protocols in use.

20. Why is the call setup time of a circuitswitched WAN implementation considered a drawback?
Routing protocols are incompatible with this function.
It restricts the communication sent to voice traffic only.
A telephone must be used to initially start transferring data.
**Data cannot be transferred until a circuit has been established.

21. Which statement about WAN protocols is correct?
ATM differs from other WAN protocols in that it uses variably sized packets.
** Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.
The frame header consists of the frame check sequence and cyclic redundancy check.
ISDN differs from Frame Relay, HDLC, and ATM in that it is packetswitched rather than circuitswitched technology.

22. What is an advantage of packetswitched technology over circuitswitched technology?
Packetswitched networks are less susceptible to jitter than circuitswitched networks are.
** Packetswitched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.
Packetswitched networks do not require an expensive permanent connection to each endpoint.
Packetswitched networks usually experience lower latency than circuitswitched networks experience.

CCNA 4 Final 3 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:05:00.000-07:00

1. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?
routable translation
dynamic translation
static translation
• port address translation

2. The LAN attached to the Ethernet interface of the Raleigh router shown in the graphic is addressed with private IP addresses. If one public IP is assigned to the company, which commands could be used in a configuration that allows all devices with private IPs in this network to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
ip nat outside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
ip nat inside serial0
• ip nat inside source list 1 pool Raleigh overload
ip nat inside Raleigh overload
ip inside nat source list 1 interface serial0 Raleigh

3. The command output shown in the graphic was taken from a Cisco 806 broadband router. Which kind of address translation is in effect on this router?
static
dynamic
• overload
private
public

4. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29

5. How will data be transmitted from the router to the ISP if the router has the two links shown in the graphic?
Both links will transmit data at the same rate.
1544 bits can be transmitted simultaneously from the router over the T1 line.
• Both links will transmit bits one by one.
The 56K link will transmit a maximum of 53 bits at the same time.

6. Which statements about DHCP are true? (Choose three.)
DHCP uses TCP.
DHCP uses UDP.
• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 67.
DHCP sends messages to the server on port 68.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 67.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 68.

7. Which command would be used to exclude the IP address 192.168.24.5 from the DHCP address pool on a router?
Router(dhcp-config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(config-excluded)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(dhcp-config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5

8. The WAN connection for a nationwide company with 250 offices must support constant connections to core layer services for file sharing, and occasional Internet access. Which combination of WAN technologies will meet these needs with minimum expense?
Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ATM for file server access
Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ISDN for file server access
ISDN for Internet access and X.25 for file server access
• ISDN for Internet access and Frame Relay PVC for file server access

9. Which command would produce the output shown in the graphic?
show ip dhcp server statistics
show ip dhcp binding
• debug ip dhcp server events
debug ip dhcp binding

10. Which of the following devices is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop for digital lines?
terminal adapter
modem
• CSU/DSU
PBX switch
ISDN switch
Frame Relay Switch

11. Which of the following statements are true about Frame Relay? (Choose three.)
Frame Relay operation is defined by a series of ISO standards.
• Frame Relay is a packet switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
Frame Relay only supports point-to-point connections.
• A router can be considered as data terminal equipment (DTE) in a frame relay system.
Frame Relay is a cell switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
• Frame Relay networks use a subset of the HDLC protocol to carry information.

12. ITU-T Q.921 specifies the use of which protocol for sending control and signaling messages between the router and the ISDN switch?
HDLC
IPCP
LAPB
• LAPD
NCP
SS7

13. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?
X.25
DSL
• ATM
ISDN BRI
ISDN PRI

14. Which statement explains why basic DSL is an unpopular WAN connectivity choice for enterprise computer departments that support home users?
DSL offers insufficient bandwidth to home users.
DSL requires the installation of new cables, which is not always possible for home users.
DSL dialup connection time is too slow for business use.
• DSL has limited geographical availability.

15. When planning simple WAN connections for a small company, which feature of the three layer hierarchical model makes it a good choice for the WAN topology.
It provides for redundancy.
• It allows for easy WAN expansion in case of company growth.
It is less expensive.
It provides faster connection time.
It provides less latency and jitter.

16. Which of the following terms describes a device that will put data on the local loop?
DLCI
CO
• DCE
DTE
PRI
BRI

17. Which of the following are supported by a BRI interface on a router? (Choose two.)
• Two independent channels that can carry analog data with a bandwidth of 64 KHz.
A single 128 Kbps digital bearer channel.
Two multiplexed channels carrying digital data.
A single 64 Kbps signaling channel.
A multiplexed data channel that can only handle SS7 information.
• A 16 Kbps delta channel used for signaling purposes.

18. A network administrator has been asked to provide the network in the United States with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with two serial connections. What must be done to adapt one of the serial interfaces of this router for the ISDN connection?
Nothing. The router is already suitable.
Purchase a BRI WAN interface card to install in the router.
Purchase a U interface to install in the router.
• Purchase a TA/NT1 device to install on the router.

19 (NEED ANSWERS!!!)Which of the following is a function of a DCE device?
determines the next-hop address for a packet
• multiplexes signals from several sources
adapts information for use on a service provider's network
used to directly connect two DTEs to simulate a WAN network

20. Why would data frames be discarded in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
The frame contains an incorrect IP address.
• An error has been detected in computing the frame check sequence.
There is not enough bandwidth dedicated for the data contained in the frame.
Data is transmitted at a rate greater than the access speed.
• The frame contains an incorrect DLCI.

21. Which of the following are commonly used as Data Communications Equipment? (Choose two.)
• modem
router
• CSU/DSU
ISDN Switch
Frame Relay Switch

22. Which of the following LCP options can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)
• CHAP
• Stacker
IPCP
CDPCP
• Multilink

23. Which command will provide for CHAP authentication if the hostname on a challenging router is tampa with a password of florida?
• username tampa password florida
username tampa florida
hostname tampa password florida
hostname tampa florida

24. Which of the following describes the PAP protocol? (Choose two.)
• sends unencrypted authentication passwords
performs a three-way handshake
• allows repeated login attempts
uses the remote router hostname to verify identity
sends a random challenge throughout the session

25. Why was NAT created? (Choose two.)
to create firewalls on routers
• to conserve IP addresses
to translate domain names into IP addresses
to map network addresses to the corresponding data link address
• to hide internal addresses from external devices

26. An ISDN router is configured for DDR as shown in the graphic to provide Internet connectivity for the company. Immediately after a user in the company attempts opens a web browser to connect to the Internet, another user in the company tries to download a file using FTP. What will happen? (Choose two.)
• The user that opened the browser will connect to the Internet because the DDR link will consider this traffic interesting.
The Internet user will be disconnected because the FTP data will cause the DDR link to shut down.
The DDR link will allow the FTP traffic because it is interesting.
The DDR link will not allow the FTP traffic because it is not interesting.
The FTP connection will fail because the DDR link is already in use for the Internet connection.
• The FTP connection will succeed because the web user already opened the DDR link.

27. Which command configures the SPID on the first B channel of an ISDN interface?
Router(config)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
Router(config)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
Router(config-if)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config-if)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]

28. What does the command debug isdn q921 display?
exchange of call setup and teardown messages
PAP and CHAP authentication traffic
• Layer 2 messages on the D channel
protocol errors and statistics
Layer 2 messages on the B channel

29. When PPP authentication is enabled, which of the following may be checked before establishing a PPP link between two devices? (Choose two.)
the enable password on the remote device
the ip host configuration on the remote device
• the security server database for the username and password of the remote device
the hostname and enable password on the local device
• the local database for the username and password of the remote device

30. How many separate B channel circuits can be provisioned on a PRI interface that uses a T1 line for connectivity?
2
16
• 23
24
30
128

31. Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
• Linux
Windows 98
Windows ME
• Windows XP
• Windows 2000

32. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC company to the Orlando office?
MAC address of the Orlando router
MAC address of the DC router
192.168.1.25
192.168.1.26
DLCI 100
• DLCI 200

33. What does a DLCI of 0 indicate about a frame? (Choose two.)
This is the first data frame sent by the router.
• This is a management frame.
The encapsulation type is Cisco.
The encapsulation type is IETF.
• The LMI type is Ansi or q933a.
The LMI type is Cisco.

34. Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)
Link Access Protocol - Data
• High-Level Data Link Control
Logical Link Control
Serial Data Link Control
• Point to Point protocol
Binary Synchronous Control protocol

35. An administrator consoled into the Jelly router needs to telnet to the Butter router. What DLCI will the Jelly router place in the frame to perform this operation?
110
115
220
• 225

36. Which commands can be used to identify which DLCIs are active? (Choose two.)
• show frame-relay map
show frame-relay lmi
• show frame-relay pvc
show frame-relay interface
show interfaces
show ip route

37. A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial0/0 command on the local router and sees the following line in the output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose three.)
• remote CSU/DSU failure
serial cable missing
interface shutdown
• keepalives not being sent
• clocking signal missing

38. A router needs to forward a message received from a host. How does the router identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)
The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.
The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
• The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
• A table of static mappings can be searched.
The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.

39. Which of the following statements regarding point-to-point subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)
A point-to-point subinterface on one router must be connected to a similar subinterface on a remote router.
Each point-to-point subinterface connection is configured with its own subnet.
The DLCIs configured on the remote and local routers must be the same for the PVC.
LMI frames are not transmitted through a subinterface.
Routing updates in point-to-point networks are not subject to the split-horizon rule.

40. Which of the following can be concluded from the router output displayed in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• The local DLCI number of this PVC is 100.
The interface has been configured for subinterfaces and this map is for subinterface 0.
• Inverse ARP has determined the remote ip address as 10.140.1.1.
The LMI type is ANSI (0x64).
There is currently no congestion on the link.

41. Which of the following are functions of the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)
• exchange information about the status of virtual circuits
map DLCIs to network addresses
• provide flow control
provide error notification
provide congestion notification
• send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC

42. Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
• PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.
• PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.
PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
• PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.

43. Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
• exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity
sends authentication password to verify identity
• prevents transmission of login information in plain text
• disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
initiates a two-way handshake

44. Which of the following switching types will allow the communication devices in the provider's network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
circuit-switched
• packet-switched
frame-switched
dedicated-switched lines
lease-switched

45. How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

46. Which of the following describes the WAN devices and cabling shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
A null-modem cable is used between RouterD and DeviceC for connectivity.
A DB-25 or DB-9 serial cable is connected to interface S0/0 of RouterA.
• DeviceB and DeviceC are DCE devices.
• The same encoding scheme must be used by DeviceB and DeviceC.
A synchronous serial connection exists between DeviceB and DeviceC.

CCNA 4 Final 2 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:04:00.000-07:00

1. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?

Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
**The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.

2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?

The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
**The vtys are not configured correctly.

3. Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available?

The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients.
**The TCP/IP information is used by DHCP clients that are configured to request a configuration from R1.
The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1.
The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.

4. What is a major characteristic of a worm?

malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs
tricks users into running the infected software
a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event
**exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network

5. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?

The 10.1.1.225 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.

The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.

**The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.

Port address translation is in effect.

6. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why Company A reports higher download speeds than Company B?

Company B has a higher volume of POTS voice traffic than Company A.

Company B shares the conection to the DSLAM with more clients than Company A.

Company A only uses microfilters on branch locations.

**Company A is closer to the service provider.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request entering interface s0/0/0, destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?

It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 permit any any statement and allows the packet into the router.
**It reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no access-list 101 permit any any statement.

It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 statement, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.

It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any statement, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then drops the packet.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output shown? (Choose two.)

This network is experiencing congestion.

**The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
Data is not flowing in this network.

**The network is discarding eligible packets.

The DLCI is globally significant.

9. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?

Configure DHCP and static NAT.

Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.

Configure static NAT for all ten users.

**Configure dynamic NAT with overload.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?

a new WAN service supporting only IPv6

NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address

**a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2

static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses

11. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
**HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

12. An established company has recently transitioned from outsourced LAN support to a completely in-house staff. The outsourcing company is no longer in business, so no records are available. There are many user complaints about application speed and availability. What two considerations apply to this situation? (Choose two.)

A network utilization baseline should quickly reveal application availability.

A period of 24 to 48 hours should provide a sufficient baseline to track normal network activity.

It is easier to start with monitoring all available data inputs on application servers, and then fine-tune to fewer variables along the way.

The initial baseline results have little relevance to current values after the network has been modified or grown in usage.

**When it is practical, network administrators should attempt to automate the collection of performance data and stay away from manual collection.

**Creating a network baseline data helps determine device thresholds for alerting.

13. Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?

PPP with PAP

**PPP with CHAP

HDLC with PAP

HDLC with CHAP

14. An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found?

physical layer

data link layer

network layer

**application layer

15. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what are two instances when a static Frame Relay map should be used? (Choose two.)

when the remote router is a non-Cisco router

**when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP

when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier

**when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled

when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

16. Which three statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose three.)

Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.

**One access list per port per protocol per direction is permitted.

Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

**There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.

**Statements are processed sequentially from top to bottom until a match is found.

The inbound keyword refers to traffic entering the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.

17. Which technology would provide the highest bandwidth connections between company sites at the lowest cost?

**broadband Internet site-to-site VPN connections

satellite based network connections

dedicated point-to-point circuits

Frame Relay PVCs

18. Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause?

improper LMI type

interface reset

**PPP negotiation failure

unplugged cable

19. What three statements describe the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

**A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.

A modem terminates a digital local loop.

A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.

**A modem terminates an analog local loop.

**A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

20. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?

Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.

Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.

ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.

**Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a Cisco router. Branch B has a non-Cisco router set for IETF encapsulation. After the commands shown are entered, R2 and R3 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R3 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?

The PVC to R3 must be point-to-point.

LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.

**The ietf parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 203 command.

The PVCs at R2 use different encapsulation types. A single port can only support one encapsulation type.

22. Which statement is true regarding wildcard masks?

The wildcard mask and subnet mask perform the same function.

The wildcard mask is always the inverse of the subnet mask.

**A "0" in the wildcard mask identifies IP address bits that must be checked.

A "1" in the wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit.

23. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC Company to the Orlando office?

MAC address of the Orlando router

MAC address of the DC router

192.168.1.25

192.168.1.26

DLCI 100

**DLCI 200

24 .A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site with four remote sites. What advantage would dedicated leased lines provide to the customer compared to a shared Frame Relay solution?

lower cost

lower latency and jitter

**variable bandwidth capacity

fewer physical router interfaces

25. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem?

proxy ARP

CDP updates

SNMP services

**RIP authentication

26. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?

show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.

show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.

**show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.

show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.

27. Which statement about a VPN is true?

VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.

DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.

**VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.

Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.

28. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router R3 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?

Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.

Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.

**Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.

Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 192.168.10.10 any eq telnet .

29. Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?

The commands overwrite the existing Managers ACL.

**The commands are added at the end of the existing Managers ACL.

The network administrator receives an error stating that the ACL already exists.

The commands will create a duplicate Managers ACL containing only the new commands being entered.

30. Which three statements accurately describe a security policy? (Choose three.)

**It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.

**It defines a process for managing security violations.

**It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.

The remote access policy is a component of the security policy that governs acceptable use of e-mail systems.

It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumventing security measures.

It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.

31. Refer to the exhibit. The link between the CTRL and BR_1 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?

The clock rate must be 56000.

**The usernames are misconfigured.

The IP addresses are on different subnets.

The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.

The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.

Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.

32. What effect would the Router1(config-ext-nacl)# permit tcp 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www command have when implemented inbound on the f0/0 interface?

All TCP traffic is permitted, and all other traffic is denied.

The command is rejected by the router because it is incomplete.

All traffic from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted anywhere on any port.

**Traffic originating from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted to all TCP port 80 destinations.

33. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?

use the copy tftp: flash: command

boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually

telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password

**boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes

34. A router in a Frame Relay network needs to forward a message received from a host. What two methods does the router use to identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)

The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.

The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.

The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.

**A table of static mappings can be searched.

The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.

35. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interface commands, at which OSI layer is a fault indicated?

application

transport

network

**data link

physical

36. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?

interface fa0/0/0, inbound

interface fa0/0/0, outbound

interface fa0/0/1, inbound

**interface fa0/0/1, outbound

37. Refer to the exhibit. The SSH connections between the remote user and the server are failing. The correct configuration of NAT has been verified. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

SSH is unable to pass through NAT.

**There are incorrect access control list entries.

The access list has the incorrect port number for SSH.

The ip helper command is required on S0/0/0 to allow inbound connections.

38. Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)

**The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.

Encapsulation should of this inteface be changed to PPP.

**There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.

The physical connection between the two routers has failed.

The IP address of S0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.

39. Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent from Host A to Host B through the VPN tunnel between R1 and R3. When the packet first arrives at R3, what are the source and destination IP addresses of the packet?

Source 192.168.1.2 - Destination 192.168.4.2

Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2

**Source 192.168.2.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2

Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.4.2

40. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?

RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.

All interfaces have been configured with the incorrect IPv4 addresses.

**RIPv1 or RIPv2 needs to be configured in addition to RIPng to successfully use IPv4.

When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are shut down in favor of the newer technology.

41. Which wireless solution can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds comparable to DSL or cable?

Wi-Fi

WiMAX

**satellite

Metro Ethernet

42. A network administrator added two switches and a new VLAN over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?

**Perform a baseline test and compare the current values to values that were obtained in previous weeks.

Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages is improved.

Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded from previous weeks.

Performance on the intranet can be determined by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.

43. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is adding R1 to an existing network. As a part of the corporate IT procedures, the administrator attempts to back up the router Cisco IOS software of R1 and receives the output shown. The network administrator then attempts unsuccessfully to ping the TFTP server from the console session. What should be done next to isolate this problem?

From R2, validate that interface Fa0/0 is operational.

From the TFTP server, verify that the software on the TFTP server is operational.

From the TFTP server, confirm there is enough room on the TFTP server for the Cisco IOS software.

**From the console session, make sure that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.

44. What functionality do access control lists provide when implementing dynamic NAT on a Cisco router?

**defines which addresses can be translated

defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

defines which addresses can be accessed from the inside network

45. A network administrator is working with an applications team to fix a problem that a server based application is having with response time. The administrator has examined the network portions of the data path and identified several possible problem areas. The applications team has simultaneously identified potential issues with the current release of software. The network administrator begins addressing the network issues while the applications team implements software patches.

Which statement applies to this situation?

**Changes to the network will reveal problems that are caused by the new patches.

Scheduling will be more difficult if the network and software teams work independently.

It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.

Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.

46. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?

10.1.1.2:1234

172.30.20.1:1234

**172.30.20.1:3333

192.168.1.2:80

47. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)

Once a good password is created, do not change it.

**Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords.

**Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.

**Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.

Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.

Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.

48. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

Traffic that is destined for 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5 will be dropped by the router.

Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

**The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

49. Which two statements are true about IPv6? (Choose two.)

**Security options are build into IPv6.

IPv6 addresses require less router overhead to process.

IPv6 can only be configured on an interface that does not have IPv4 on it.

There is no way to translate between IPv4 addresses and IPv6 addresses.

**When enabled on a router, IPv6 can automatically configure link-local IPv6 addresses on all interfaces.

50. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?

The serial interfaces are in different subnets.

**The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.

The RIPng network command is not configured.

The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.

51. At what physical location does the responsibilty for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider?

demilitarized zone (DMZ)

**demarcation point

local loop

cloud

52. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1". What is the problem?

The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool.

**The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is incorrect.

The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect.

The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.

53. Which three functions are provided by the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)

**exchange information about the status of virtual circuits

**map DLCIs to network addresses

provide flow control

provide error notification

provide congestion notification

**send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC

54. Which three items are LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)

**CHAP

**Stacker

IPCP

CDPCP

**Multilink

55. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)

checksum

digital certificates

**encapsulation

**encryption

CCNA 4 Final 1 V4.0

2009-07-17T23:02:00.000-07:00

1. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
• A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates a digital local loop.
A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
• A modem terminates an analog local loop.
• A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
CIR
DE
• DLCI
ISDN
FRAD
PVC

3. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?
The IP addresses must be on different subnets.
• The usernames are misconfigured.
The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
The clock rate must be 56000.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

4. The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.)
• There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.
There is no clock present on the serial interface.
The interface is shut down.
RARP is not functioning on the router.
• The cable is disconnected.

5. Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends? (Choose three.)
• The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).
• The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.
The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.
• The point is called the demarcation point.
The point is typically located at the service provider's central office.
The point is located between the customer's local area networks.

6. While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network administrator is testing a serial link between serial 0/0 interfaces on two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is connected to the DCE cable end?
show interfaces serial 0/0
show version
• show controllers serial 0/0
show protocols serial 0/0
show status serial 0/0

7. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The DHCP server service is not enabled.
The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
• The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

8. A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration? (Choose two.)
• Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.
A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.
• All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.
A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote routers.
An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.

9. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used? (Choose two.)
when the remote router is a non-Cisco router
• when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier
• when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

10. Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?
RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2
RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast
• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp broadcast

11. Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?
• ITU-T Q.921
ITU-T Q.931
ITU-T I.430
ITU-T I.431

12. What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
create a full-mesh topology
disable Inverse ARP
use point-to-point subinterfaces
use multipoint subinterfaces
remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command

13. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
• defines which addresses are allowed into the router
defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

14. A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established:
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.
What should the administrator do to solve the problem?
Add a clock rate on RouterA.
Enable the serial interface on RouterB.
• Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.
Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.

15. An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?
change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
remove the dialer list statement from the configuration
• change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting
disable inverse ARP

16. Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies the proper order of DDR?
1 - dial number is looked up
2 - interesting traffic triggers DDR
3 - route to destination is determined
4 - call is made
1,2,3,4
1,3,2,4
2,3,1,4
2,1,3,4
• 3,2,1,4
3,1,2,4

17. Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?
NAT with DHCP
Frame Relay
HDLC with encryption
HDLC with CHAP
PPP with PAP
• PPP with CHAP

18. Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI configuration? (Choose two.)
create subinterfaces
define the LMI type
set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch
set the interface DLCI
set the switch type
specify the encapsulation as either Cisco or IETF

19. A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an ISDN circuit used to connect to the regional office. Upon investigation of this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN connection is initiated to the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of time. Which of the following configuration changes could be made to DDR on the router to reduce these connect time charges?
use PPP multilink
lower idle timer setting
use CHAP authentication
• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles

20. A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco router and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)
• The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary "Type" field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.
HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.
• PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.
Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link.
The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.
There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.

21. Given the partial router configuration in the graphic, why does the workstation with the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 fail to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• The NAT inside interfaces are not configured properly.
The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.
• The router is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.
The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.
The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 to access the Internet.

22. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue will prevent IP traffic from crossing this link?
The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
The usernames are misconfigured.
The clock rate must be 56000.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• The IP addresses must be on the same subnet.
Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

23. What causes a DDR call to be placed?
dial string
DLCI
idle time out
• interesting traffic
PVC

24. Which two layers of the OSI model are described by WAN standards?
Application Layer, Physical Layer
• Data Link Layer, Physical Layer
Data Link Layer, Transport Layer
Physical Layer, Network Layer

25. A technician is testing RouterA in the graphic. What is the condition of the circuit?
The routers are configured for different encapsulations.
• The clock rate is not properly configured on the routers.
The circuit from WAN provider has failed.
Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.
The circuit is functioning properly.

26. A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between a central office and three remote sites: Orlando, Atlanta, and Phoenix. The Orlando and Atlanta remote offices receive sales orders and transmit shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently throughout the day. The Phoenix remote office consists of one salesperson traveling through the southwest territory. The salesperson occasionally needs to connect to the Central office for e-mail access. How should the network administrator connect the remote sites to the Central office? (Choose two.)
• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with Frame Relay connections.
Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with ISDN connections.
Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with POTS dial-up connections.
Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a Frame Relay connection.
• Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a POTS dial-up connection.

27. When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames in its queue, which of the following may occur? (Choose two.)
• Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.
Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the switch queue.
Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.
The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link.
• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link.

28. A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two routers in a new installation. The administrator enters the debug ppp authentication command on the WHSE router. The graphic shows a part of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause of this connectivity issue?
There is not a route to the remote router.
The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.
• The username/password was not properly configured on the WHSE router.
The remote router has a different authentication protocol configured.

29. What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown below represent? (Choose two.)
Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active
• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.
172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface.
DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.
broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC.
• dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled for this connection.
active indicates that the ARP process is working.

30. What does the status inactive indicate in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command?
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but is not usable.
The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer there.
The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
The DLCI has been renamed for that PVC.

31. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29

32. After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate begins testing the dialup connection. When attempting to ping a host on the remote network, the local router does not attempt to dial the remote access server. Which of the following are possible errors in this configuration? (Choose three.)
PPP authentication is not properly configured.
• No dialer map is configured.
The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.
• No interesting traffic is defined.
No route is determined to the remote network.
• A wrong number is configured in the dial string.

33. Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay, point-to-point PVC. The remote router is from a vendor other than Cisco. Which interface command is required to configure the link between the Cisco router and the other router?
frame-relay pvc multipoint
frame-relay pvc point-to-point
encapsulation frame-relay cisco
• encapsulation frame-relay ietf
frame-relay lmi-type ansi

34. Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a backup for a leased line and additional capacity during peak usage times?
X.25
DSL
ISDN
cable modem

35. After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be used to verify that the router is communicating correctly with the ISDN switch?
show dialer
show isdn status
• show interfaces bri0/0:1
show interfaces serial0/0.1

36. A system administrator needs to configure the regional office with ISDN for DDR connections to three remote sites. Each remote site requires different IP subnets, different encapsulations, and different authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same time. The company would like to accomplish this in the most cost effective manner. What method can the system administrator use to accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?
Install and configure a PRI.
Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for each remote site.
Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in global configuration.
• Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.
Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.

37. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure static NAT for all ten users.
• Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
Configure dynamic NAT with PAT.
Configure DHCP and static NAT.
What the administrator wants to do cannot be done.

38. Which of the following are characteristics of Frame Relay? (Choose two.)
circuit-switched
• connection oriented
OSI Layer 3
• packet-switched
reliable

39. Which of the following is the order for the three phases of establishing a PPP serial link with authentication?
authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols
authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment
network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication
network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment
• link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols
link-establishment, network layer protocols, authentication

CCNA 4 Final 4 V4.0

2009-07-17T22:56:00.000-07:00

1. Identify the factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN. (Choose three.)
• improper placement of enterprise level servers
• addition of hosts to a physical segment
replacement of hubs with workgroup switches
• increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN

2. Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)
• a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
• a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
• a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console

3. Which of the following eliminates switching loops?
hold-down timers
poison reverse
• spanning tree protocol
time to live
split horizon protocol

4. The show cdp neighbors command is a very useful network troubleshooting tool. Using the output in the graphic, select the statements that are true. (Choose two.)
CDP operates at the network layer of the OSI model.
• The output of this command displays information about directly connected Cisco devices only.
The switch is attached to the SanJose1 FastEthernet0/21 interface.
SanJose1 is running CDP version 12.0.
SanJose1 has two fully operational, cdp-enabled Cisco switches directly connected to it.
• SanJose2 is a 2600 series router running several routed protocols

5. A network administrator can ping the Denver router, but gets a 'Password Required but None Set' message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command sequence must be applied to the Denver router to allow remote access?

Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config)# line virtual terminal
Router(config-line)# enable login
Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# enable secret
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# enable secret cisco
Router(config)# enable cisco

6. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
low processor overhead
poison reverse
routing loops
split horizon
• shortest-path first calculations

7. A router does not load its configuration after a power failure. After running the show startup-configuration command, the adminstrator finds that the original configuration is intact. What is the cause of this problem?
The configuration register is set for 0x2100.
The configuration register is set for 0x2101.
The configuration register is set for 0x2102.
• The configuration register is set for 0x2142.
Boot system commands are not configured.
Flash memory is empty causing the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM
Nederst på formularen

8. Which commands are used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose three.)
• show ip interface
show ip route
show processes
• show running-config
show cdp neighbor
• show access-lists

9. Which of the following are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)
destination address and wildcard mask
• source address and wildcard mask
subnet mask and wildcard mask
access list number between 100 and 199 or 2000 and 2699
• access list number between 1 and 99 or 1300 to 1999

10. Which of the following are keywords that can be used in an access control list to replace a dotted decimal wildcard mask? (Choose two.)
most
• host
all
• any
some
sum

11. Refer to the diagram. All ports on Switch A are in the Sales VLAN and all ports on Switch B are in the Accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are shown? (Choose two).
3 collision domains
• 3 broadcast domains
5 broadcast domains
• 9 collision domains
10 collision domains
13 collision domains

12. Refer to the graphic. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces?
192.168.16.63/27
192.168.16.158/27
192.168.16.192/27
192.168.16.113/30
192.168.16.145/30
• 192.168.16.193/30

13. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
• prevents Layer 2 loops
prevents routing loops on a router
creates smaller collision domains
creates smaller broadcast domains
allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates

14. What is the purpose of a loopback address when using the OSPF routing protocol?
activates the OSPF neighboring process
• ensures a persistent router ID for the OSPF process
provides a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process
streamlines and speeds up the convergence process

15. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol?
Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
• Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.
It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding

16. Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router?

Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0

Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0

Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

• Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255

17. Which routing protocols are classful and do not support VLSM? (Choose two.)
EIGRP
OSPF
• RIP v1
RIP v2
• IGRP

18. Refer to the graphic. Two switches are connected together through a trunk port. SW2 displays the message shown. Which of the following will solve the duplex mismatch?

SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# duplex full

SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# full-duplex

• SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# duplex full

SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# full-duplex

19. Refer to the graphic. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?
EIGRP does not support VLSM.
The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes.
The default bandwidth was used on the routers.
• An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.

20. According to the the provided router output, which of the following statements is true regarding PPP operation?
Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.
Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.
Neither the link-establishment phase nor the the network-layer phase completed successfully.
• Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully

21. Frame Relay is configured over a point-to-point connection between two routers. The output of the show frame-relay pvc command indicates that the status of this PVC is inactive. Which of the following devices could be the source of the problem? (Choose two.)
local router
local Frame Relay switch
• remote router
• remote Frame Relay switch
R3 has the following configuration:
R3# show running-config
--some output text omitted--
interface serial0/0
bandwidth 128
ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0
encapsulation frame-relay
frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast

22. After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what might be problem?
• No clock rate assigned.
There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.
An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.
The encapsulation command is missing the broadcast keyword

23. Which statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)
• The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.
The LMI type must always be manually configured.
The available LMI types are NI1, DMS100 and 5ESS.
The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.
• The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch.
• The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE

24. Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?
• Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.
The number of usable addresses assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.
A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.
The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured

25. Which two statements are true about the committed information rate on a Frame Relay link? (Choose two.)
The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must be less than the port speed.
The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must equal the port speed.
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs can be greater than the port speed.
• The DE bit will be set on frames that are transmitted in excess of the CIR.
Frames that are transmitted at greater than the CIR will be discarded at the source.
It is impossible to transmit frames at a rate in excess of the CIR

26. Which of the following commands would be used to troubleshoot the processing of call control functions such as call setup, signaling, and termination?
show interface bri0/0
show isdn active
debug isdn q921
• debug isdn q931
debug ppp negotiation
debug ppp authentication

27. Which of the following statements are true regarding PPP? (Choose three.)
• PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous physical media.
PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.
PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.
• PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data link connection.
• PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection

28. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which of the following reasons might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)
establishes identities with a two-way handshake
• uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities
control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events
• transmits login information in encrypted format
• uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks
makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session

29. Why are static routes often used with ISDN DDR?
They are more stable than dynamic routing protocols.
They are more accurate than dynamic routing protocols because they are put in by a network administrator.
They are easier to modify when a faster technology is installed.
• They prevent the unnecessary activation of the link

30. Assuming that four bits have been borrowed to make subnets, identify the subnet network addresses. (Choose three.)
192.168.14.8
• 192.168.14.16
192.168.14.24
• 192.168.14.32
192.168.14.148
• 192.168.14.208

31. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which one of the following groups reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?
• 1) fast forward
2) fragment free
3) store-and-forward

1) store-and-forward
2) fragment free
3) fast forward

1) fragment free
2) fast forward
3) store-and-forward

1) fast forward
2) store-and-forward
3) fragment free

32. Which of the following commands will display a communication message on a router before the router prompt is shown?
• banner motd * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
message Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.
banner * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
hostname (Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.)
Øverst på formularen

33. A router needs to be added to OSPF area 0. Which commands should be used to enable OSPF on the router? (Choose two.)
RouterA(config)# router ospf
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

34. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands will configure router A for OSPF?
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0

• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0

35. Which of the following protocols would exchange information between routers to share network addresses and their metrics?
TCP
• RIP
CSMA/CD
Ethernet

36. Which ISDN device can be directly connected to a two-wire local loop in a North American city?
a router with a serial interface
a router with an S/T interface
• a router with a U interface
an ISDN terminal adapter

37. The output of the show ip interfaces brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. Which of the following are possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)
The clock rate is not set on the DTE.
An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.
A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.
• The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.
• Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device

38. Which of the following is a characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)
• data transport reliability
best path determination
• establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits
encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses
best-effort datagram delivery

39. Which statement is true regarding the command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)
• A packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.
192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.
192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.
This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.
• This command is used to define a static route

40. Which of the following application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
• SMTP
• FTP
SNMP
• HTTP
TFTP
DHCP

41. Which terms refer to Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)
• BECN
DLCI
• DE
• FECN
LMI
Inverse ARP

42. Which of the following router commands will verify that a path exists to a destination network?
Router# show ip interfaces brief
• Router# show ip route
Router# show cdp neighbors
Router# show running-config
Router# show protocols

43. When EIGRP is configured on a router, which table of DUAL information is used to calculate the best route to each destination router?
router table
• topology table
DUAL table
CAM table
ARP table

44. Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which of the following commands is used on router A to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two)
• ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224
summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31
ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
• serial interface on router A
serial interface on router B

45. A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and two loopback interfaces configured is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What is used by the OSPF process to assign the router ID?
the IP address of the interface configured with priority 0
the OSPF area ID configured on the interface with the highest IP address
• the loopback with the highest IP address configured
the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces
the highest IP address configured on the WAN interfaces

46. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does this address reside?
172.0.0.0
172.16.134.0
• 172.16.134.32
172.16.134.48
172.16.134.47
172.16.134.63

47. Which commands show when the last IGRP routing update was received? (Choose two.)
• Router# show ip protocols
Router# show version
Router# show interfaces
Router# show ip updates
• Router# show ip route

48. When using access control lists to filter traffic, which of the following is used to track multiple sessions occurring between hosts?
IP addresses
subnet masks
• port numbers
routed protocols
routing protocols
interfaces

49. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
• This is a network address.
This is not a valid address

50. The company network shown in the drawing has to be subnetted. The company has leased the Class C IP address of 200.1.2.0. Which of the following network addresses and masks would be appropriate for one of the subnetworks?
200.1.2.96 255.255.255.192
• 200.1.2.160 255.255.255.224
200.1.2.80 255.255.255.224
200.1.2.32 255.255.255.240

CCNA4 exploration 4 course materials

2009-06-24T19:59:00.000-07:00

CCNA4 exploration 4 course materials:

download:

Chapter 1
Chapter 2
Chapter 3
Chapter 6
Chapter 7
Chapter 8

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 11 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-06-10T00:29:00.001-07:00

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 11 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Refer to the exhibit. What does the "O*E2" from the "O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0" line represent?
• an external OSPF route that will not increment in cost.

2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
• 1786

3. What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
• area id
• hello interval
• network type

4. What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
• designated router
• backup designated router

5. What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
• bandwidth

6. A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?
• Routes for connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?
• B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of sommands will cause OSPF to be enabled to send and receive packets for any R1 interface in the exhibited subnets?
• R1(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

9. Refer to the exhibit. What does the "2" stand for in the router ospf 2 statement?
• The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.

10. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?
• The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.

11. Refer to the exhibit. What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocols command?
• B(config)# router ospf 1B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5

12. Refer to the exhibit. How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?
• 6

13. What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?
• 110

14. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR. What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A?
• A(config)# interface fa0/0
A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.

15. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
• 1787

16. What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?
• 192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24

17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps must the administrator take to accomplish this?
• nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1

18. Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?
• A FULL adjacency is formed.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)
• DR for network 192.168.1.200
• BDR for network 192.168.1.204

20. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?
• OSPF hello or dead timers do not match

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?
• RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate

22. Refer to the exhibit. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?
• There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

23. Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)
• Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.
• Elections are required in non-broadcast multiaccess networks.

24. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)
• Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.

25. Refer to the exhibit. What must be received between neighbors to prevent the dead time that is shown in the exhibit from reaching zero?
• hello packets

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 10 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-06-10T00:28:00.000-07:00

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 10 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?
• It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

2. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)
• whenever the network topology changes
• upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

3. What is the final step in the link state routing process?
• SPF computes best path to each destination network

4. What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)
• each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighborsall routers in the area have identical link state databases.

5. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?
• cost of the link

6. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
• splitting routing topologies into smaller areas

7. To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)
• build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link.
• flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database.
• construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network.

8. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
• updates triggered by network changes

9. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
• Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.

10. What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
• Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
• After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.

11. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
• Dijkstra

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?
• BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost

13. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?
• link-state database

14. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)
• IS-IS
• OSPF

15. When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?
• when a link goes up or down

16. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
• sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS

17. A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?
• OSPF

18. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?
• floods the LSP to neighbors

19. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?
• B and C

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 9 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-06-10T00:27:00.000-07:00

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 9 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. What two actions will the EIGRP DUAL FSM take if a link to a network goes down? (Choose two.)
• put the route into passive mode
• query neighbors for a new route
• search routing table for a feasible successor
• run the SPF algorithm to find a new successor
• search topology table for a feasible successor

2. Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to
enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
• R1(config-router)# network 192.168.1.128
• R1(config-router)# auto-summary
• R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# no auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.64

3. Refer to the exhibit. The company is using EIGRP with an autonomous system number of 10. Pings between
hosts on networks that are connected to router A and those that are connected to router B are successful.
However, users on the 192.168.3.0 network are unable to reach users on the 192.168.1.32 network. What is the
most likely cause of this problem?
• IP classless is enabled and is causing the packet to drop.
• The command network 192.168.1.32 was not issued on router C.
• The routers are not configured in the same EIGRP routing domain.
• Automatic summarization of the networks is causing the subnetted routes to be dropped.

4. What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose three.)
• the routing protocol
• the feasible distance of the route
• the highest cost of the route
• the SRTT value for the route
• the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router
• the physical address of the gateway interface

5. On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?
• routing table
• neighbor table
• topology table
• adjacency table

6. Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the P at the beginning of the topology entry?
• the route is in a stable state
• the route is a preferred route
• DUAL is searching for a better route to this destination
• the exit interface is in passive mode and EIGRP advertisements are blocked

7. In the command router eigrp 20, what is the purpose of the number 20?
• specifies the administrative distance for all EIGRP routes
• identifies the autonomous system number this EIGRP process will advertise
• determines what metric is added to all advertised routes
• indicates the number of addresses in the EIGRP routing domain

8. Refer to the exhibit. In the topology table, what do the numbers 3011840 and 3128695 represent?
• the route metric that is applied to those EIGRP routes for this router
• the trustworthiness of the routing information source
• the composite of the hop count and bandwidth to that destination network
• the total metric for that network as advertised by the EIGRP neighbor

9. Which two statements describe characteristics of EIGRP? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP is a distance vector routing protocol.
• EIGRP supports classless routing and VLSM.
• EIGRP is classified as a link-state routing protocol.
• EIGRP uses TCP for reliable delivery of EIGRP update packets.
• With EIGRP, loop-free paths are achieved through the use of hold-down timers.
• EIGRP sends a periodic update every 30 minutes.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2 immediately send
to Router1 and Router3?
• a query for network 192.168.0.0/28
• an acknowledgment packet to 224.0.0.9
• an update packet that is sent to 255.255.255.255
• a packet that contains the new routing table for R2
• unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1

11. Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2 immediately send
to Router1 and Router3?
• a query for network 192.168.0.0/28
• an acknowledgment packet to 224.0.0.9
• an update packet that is sent to 255.255.255.255
• a packet that contains the new routing table for R2
• unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1

12. What administrative distance would a router assign to a default route in EIGRP that is learned from a source
external to the autonomous system?
• 1
• 5
• 70
• 90
• 170
• 190

13. In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination?
(Choose two.)
• routing
• topology
• neighbor
• path
• shortest path

14. Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries? (Choose two.)
• routes learned from other routing protocols
• routes learned from any non-adjacent EIGRP routers
• any route with a hop count metric higher than 224
• EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems
• all passive routes in the routing table

15. Which term defines a collection of networks under the administrative control of a single entity that presents a
common routing policy to the Internet?
• autonomous system
• contiguous networks
• process ID
• BGP

16. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No static routes are c
on this router. What can be concluded about network 198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?
• A route to network 198.18.1.0/24 is not listed in the routing table.
• Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.
• EIGRP will perform equal cost load balancing across two paths when forwarding packets to 198.18

17. The router with interface 172.16.3.2 is a successor for network 198.18.1.0/24.
Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces have been configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the example
Assuming that all routers are using a default configuration of EIGRP as their routing protocol, what
packets take from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
• A,B,E
• A,C,E
• A,D,E
• Packets will load balance across the A,B,E and A,C,E paths.
• Packets will load balance across the A,B,E and A,D,E paths.
• Packets will load balance across the A,C,E and A,D,E paths.

18. By default, which two metrics are used by EIGRP to determine the best path between networks?
• MTU
• load
• delay
• bandwidth
• reliability

19. Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
Bounded updates are sent to all routers within an autonomous system.
• Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.
The updates are sent to all routers in the routing table.
Updates are bounded by the routers in the topology table.

20. The show ip eigrp topology command output on a router displays a successor route and a feasible successor
route to network 192.168.1.0/24. In order to reduce processor utilization, what does EIGRP do when the
primary route to this network fails?
• The router sends query packets to all EIGRP neighbors for a better route to network 192.168.1.0/24.
• The DUAL FSM immediately recomputes the algorithm to calculate the next backup route.
• Packets that are destined for network 192.168.1.0/24 are sent out the default gateway instead.
• The backup route to network 192.168.1.0/24 is installed in the routing table.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of show ip eigrp neighbors, what are two possible problems with
adjacencies between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
• The routers are configured with different EIGRP process IDs.
• Automatic summarization was disabled.
• The hello timer for R1 was altered.
• The serial interfaces for both routers are in different networks.
• No feasible successors were found.

22. Refer to the exhibit. This is the debug output from 2 directly connected EIGRP routers. They are not
forming an adjacency. What is the cause?
• one router is a non-cisco router
• they have different autonomous-system numbers
• they are using difference sequence numbers
• they are sending incorrect hello types

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will advertise the 192.168.1.64/30 network but not the 192.168.1.32
network on router A?
• network 192.168.1.0
• network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0
• network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3
• network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.7
• network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.255

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 8 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-06-10T00:26:00.000-07:00

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 8 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?
• The router will have to perform recursive lookups to forward a packet destined for 192.168.2.213/24.
• The parent route for these networks was removed from the routing table.
• A route to 192.168.0.0/25 would be classified as a supernet route for the routes listed in the routing table.
• All of the routes listed are network routes.

2. Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next?
• searches for a default route to forward the packet
• drops the packet since the static route does not have an exit interface
• performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet
• sends a request to neighboring routers for the location of the 128.107.0.0 network

3. Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?
• 172.16.0.0/16
• 172.16.0.0/24
• 172.16.0.0/30
• 172.16.1.0/16

4. The following entry is displayed in the routing table:
• R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1
• What type of route is this?
• a level 1 parent route
• a level 1 supernet route
• a level 1 ultimate network route
• a level 2 child route
• a level 2 ultimate child route

5. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of 172.16.0.0/24 will not be dropped?
• issue the ip default-network command
• use a classful routing protocol such as RIPv1
• enable either OSPF or ISIS as the routing protocol
• issue the ip classless command
• do nothing, ip classless is on by default

6. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
• drop the packet
• forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.0
• forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.64
• use the default route

7. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6
• 7
• 8

8. Refer to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do with a packet destined for host 172.16.4.234?
• drop the packet
• send packet out Serial 0/0/1
• send packet to network 0.0.0.0
• send packet out FastEthernet 0/0

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?
• EIGRP is being used
• There is at least one parent and one child route
• 192.168.2.0, 192.168.3.0, and 192.168.4.0 networks are child routes
• Traffic going to 172.16.3.0 will be directed to s 0/0/1

10. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 has been issued the ip classless command. What happens to packets destined to host 172.16.3.10?
• they are dropped
• sent to default gateway
• forward out interface Serial0/0/1
• forward out interface FastEthernet 0/0

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined for servers on the 172.16.254.0 network are being dropped by Router2. What command should the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent out the gateway of last resort, Serial 0/0/1?
• ip classless
• A router has the following entries in its routing table:
• S 192.168.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.128.2
• O 192.168.0.0/25 [110/2175] via 172.16.1.1, 00:02:15, FastEthernet0/1
• D 192.168.0.0/25 [90/22455] via 172.16.2.2, 00:12:15, Serial0/0/0
• R 192.168.0.0/26 [120/2] via 172.16.3.3, 00:00:15, Serial0/0/1

12. The router receives a packet that is destined for a host with the address 192.168.0.58. Which route would this router use to forward the packet?
• router use to forward the packet?
• the static route
• the OSPF route
• the EIGRP route
• the RIP route

13.What determines if the router implements a classless route lookup process?
• Child routes are present in the routing table.
• A classless routing protocol has been configured on the router.
• The command ip classless is enabled on the router.
• Multiple routes with different masks to the same destination are in the routing table.
• Routing table entries have a next-hop IP address and an exit interface for each child route.

14. What occurs when no ip classless is implemented on the router?
• The router will only support classful IP addressing.
• The router will only support classful routing protocols.
• The router will use a default route, if present, when a matching route is not found in the routing table.
• The router will assume it has knowledge of all subnets in the network and will not search beyond child
• routes for a better match.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on router E. Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for default routing behavior. Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in the routing table will be searched first and why?
• 172.16.1.0/25 because it is the first ultimate route
• 0.0.0.0/0 because it is the lowest network number
• 172.16.0.0/25 because it is the first level 1 route
• 172.18.0.0/15 because it has the shortest mask

16. A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
• the route with the smallest AD
• the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination
• the route with the highest bandwidth
• the route with the best combination of AD and lowest cost

17. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the 172.16.0.0/24 network?
• 0.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.255

18. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the network 172.16.1.4?
• RIPv1
• RIPv2
• EIGRP
• OSPF

19. A route to a destination network is learned from multiple routing protocols. What is used by a Cisco router to select the preferred route to the destination that will be installed in the routing table?
• metric
• route prefix
• update timer
• administrative distance

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 7 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-06-10T00:25:00.000-07:00

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 7 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. A network administrator has been told that the company IP address infrastructure must adhere to RFC 1918. What three IP address ranges from RFC 1918 could the administrator use on the network? (Choose three.)
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 172.16.0.0/12
• 192.168.0.0/16

2. Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
• VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What effect will the commands that are shown have on RIP updates for Router1?
• Only version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit?
• The no auto-summary has not been configured on this router.

5. What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose two.)
• RIP version 2 supports VLSM.
• RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.

6. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 is configured as the routing protocol for the network that is shown. The following commands are used on each router:
• router rip
network 10.0.0.0
network 172.16.0.0

RIPv1 is unable to route to discontiguous subnets of a major network.

7. A network administrator installed four new routers that are running RIPv2. Router1 is a boundary router in the RIPv2 network and has a default route configured. Once the network has converged, the network administrator enters Router1(config-router)# default-information originate on Router1. How will this affect the network?
• propagates the default route to all routers in the network

8. Refer to the exhibit. A technician needs to add a new loopback interface to test routing functionality and network design. The technician enters the following set of commands on the router:
Sanford(config)# interface loopback1
Sanford(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.62 255.255.255.252
• The network address for Loopback1 overlaps with an already configured interface address.

9. What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?
• 15 hops
|
10. What are two functions of the network command used when configuring routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• identifies which networks will be included in the routing updates
• determines which interfaces can send and receive routing updates

11. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is configured on router B?
• A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.

12. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the 192.168.1.32/27 network?
• Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.

13. RIPv2 is the configured routing protocol on the routers in a network. The command Router(config-router)# no version 2 is entered on the routers. What effect does entering this command have on routing updates?
• Version 1 and 2 updates will be received and the version 2 updates will not be sent.

14. How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
• They both use hop count as a metric.
• They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
• They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited network contains a mixture of Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The command debug ip rip was entered on the JAX router. All routers are running the same version of RIP. Router CHI and Router ORL are not able to reach the 192.168.1.16/28 network. What is a possible solution to this problem?
• Configure RIPv2 on routers.

16. What field was added to the RIP message header by RFC 1723 to add support for VLSM and CIDR?
• Subnet mask

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which command on which router will allow Router1 to learn about the 192.168.0.0/20 network?
• Router2(config-router)# version 2

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
• Router1 will install a route to 192.168.0.0/20
• Router2 will not install a route to 192.168.16.0/20

19. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIP version 2. JAX is configured to just advertise the 10.0.0.0/24 network. CHI is configured to advertise the 172.16.0.0/16 network. A network administrator enters the commands shown in the exhibit. What changes will occur in this network?
• The CHI router will install a route to the 192.168.0.0/16 network in its routing table.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the 192.168.16.0/28 network?
• Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0

21. When this configuration is complete, users on the LAN of each router are unable to access the remote LANs. Why?
• RIPv1 is unable to route to discontiguous subnets of a major network.

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 6 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-06-10T00:24:00.000-07:00

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 6 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
• reduced routing table size
• reduced routing update traffic

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are shown in the exhibit?
• 192.168.4.15/29

3. In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
• 84

4. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• 32-bit address
• Subnet mask

5. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
• 255.255.255.252

6. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
• utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space

7. Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
• OSPF
• RIP v2
• EIGRP

8. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
• the shortage of IP addresses

9. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:
1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2....successful
2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
3. pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network....successful
4. pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
5. pings from R2 to host B....successful.
What is the likely cause of the failure of the ping from R1 to host B?
• The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.

10. A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA, Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)
• 255.255.255.224 for Sales
• 255.255.255.240 for QA

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
• 192.168.0.0/21

12. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
• /27

13. Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?
• 192.168.2.130/25

14. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied if Router A sends a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0 to Router B?
• 24

15. Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?
• 29

16. An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
• 192.1.1.224/28

17. What is a supernet?
• a summarization of serveral IP classful networks into one IP address range
18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from 10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing scheme?
• The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.

19. A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table. What range of networks are summarized by this route?
• 192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24

20. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?
• CIDR

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CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 5 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-06-10T00:23:00.000-07:00

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 5 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?
• Router1(config-router)# no network 192.168.10.0

2. The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?
• 3

3. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
• RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.

4. Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still valid in the routing table of Router1. How much longer will it take for Router1 to mark the route invalid by setting the metric to 16?
• 155 seconds

5. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?
• ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1

6. What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)
• uses hop count as a metric
• considers a metric of 16 as infinity
• calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm

7. Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?
• RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0

8. What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?
• 30

9. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?
• The default-information originate command has been entered on A.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?
• routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router

11. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?
• All routers have all /30 routes. Routers A and E also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.

12. Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).
• It is a distance vector routing protocol.
• The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.

13. Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
• RouterB(config)# no router rip

14. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).
• R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]
• R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]

15. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
• debug ip rip

16. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the show ip route command?

• There are two equal cost paths to network 1.0.0.0.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?
• 10.0.0.0/8

18. Refer to the exhibit. Pings between the serial interfaces of the routers are successful. Hosts on each LAN can ping the Fa0/0 interface of the router to which they are directly connected through the switch. However, pings between hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 networks are unsuccessful. What is a likely cause of this problem?
• RIP is configured incorrectly on R1.

19. What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?
• All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.

20. Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?
• only the gateway router

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 4 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-06-10T00:20:00.000-07:00

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 4 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Which event will cause a triggered update?
• a route is installed in the routing table

2. Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?
• They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.

3. What does the RIP holddown timer do?
• instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes

4. Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).
• updates are broadcast at regular intervals
• broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255

5. Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?
• will send out an update if there is a failure of a link

6. Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.
• EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.

7. Which statement is true regarding cisco's RIP_JITTER variable?
• It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.

8. What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)
• RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.
• Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB

9. Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?
• Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.

10. The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?
• route poisoning

11. What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?
• limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

12. Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)
• routing loops
• inconsistent traffic forwarding
• inconsistent routing table entries

13. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?
• The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.

14. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.
• EIGRP updates are partial.

15. Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?
• The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.

16. Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).
• RIPv1
• EIGRP
• RIPv2

17. What is a routing loop?
• a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination

18. Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)
• inconsistent routing tables
• incorrectly configured static routes

19. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?
• 16

20. What does a router running RIP do first with a new route that is received from an advertisement?
• adjusts the metric for the new route to show the added distance for the route

21. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?
• 3

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 3 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-06-10T00:18:00.000-07:00

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 3 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
• Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
• Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
• R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

3. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• sends subnet mask information in routing updates
• allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

4. Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
• show ip route

5. Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
• EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.

6. Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
• the network is using a hub and spoke topology
• the network is using a flat design

7. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
• It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

8. Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
• hey send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

9. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
• shortest-path first calculations

10. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
• Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

11. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged
• The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

12. Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
• OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.

13. Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).
• increased security
• the administrator maintains control over routing

14. The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
• The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.

15. What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown
• A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".

16. An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
• The administrative distance of this route is 1.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
• The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.

18. The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
• The cost for this link has a value of 129.

19. A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
• OSPF can be used between the routers.

20. Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
• 3

21. A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
• The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-06-10T00:16:00.000-07:00

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
• administrative distance of 0 and metric of 0
• administrative distance of 0 and metric of 1
• administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0
• administrative distance of 1 and metric of 1

2. What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?
• 172.16.0.0/21
• 172.16.1.0/22
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.255.248
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.252.0

3. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
• 192.1.1.0/26 and 192.1.1.64/27
• 192.1.1.128/25
• 192.1.1.0/23 and 192.1.1.64/23
• 192.1.1.0/24
• 192.1.1.0/25
• 192.1.1.0/24 and 192.1.1.64/24

4. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
• It indicates that there are 8 hops between this router and the 10.0.0.0 network.
• It represents the time, in milliseconds, it takes for a ping to reply when sent to the 10.0.0.0 network.
• It indicates that there are 8 subnets in the destination network to which the router can forward packets.
• It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.

5. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
• Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.
• Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/1.
• There is no matching interface associated with network 172.16.0.0 so packets will be dropped.
• There is no matching interface associated with network 172.16.0.0 so packets will take gateway of last resort and exit out S0/2.

6. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
• drops the packet because the destination host is not listed in the routing table
• looks up the MAC address of the S0/1/0 interface to determine the destination MAC address of the new frame
• performs a recursive lookup for the IP address of the S0/1/0 interface before forwarding the packet
• encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface

7. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
• The rate would be negotiated by both routers.
• A rate would not be selected due to the DCE/DTE connection mismatch.
• The rate configured on the DTE determines the clock rate.
• The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
• WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
• WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
Altamonte(config)# ip route 198.18.222.0 255.255.255.255 s0/1
• WinterPark(config)# ip route 172.191.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.1
• WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
• WinterPark(config)# ip route 172.191.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0

9. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
• ping
• show arp
• traceroute
• show ip route
• show interface
• show cdp neighbor detail

10. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
• R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.2.1
R2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1

11. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
• load
• platform
• reliability
• holdtime
• local interface

12. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
• A (config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/0/0
• B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0
• B (config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.40.1
• B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/1/0

13. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
• A(config)# no network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
• A(config)# no ip address 10.0.0.1 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
• A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s0/0/0
• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

14. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
• The route is removed from the table.
• The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
• The route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
• The router redirects the static route to compensate for the loss of the next hop device.

15. A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
• The destination network no longer exists.
• The destination network is moved to a different interface on the same router.
• The path between the source and destination is upgraded with a higher bandwidth link.
• A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.
• The remote destination network interface has to be down for 15 minutes of maintenance.

16. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
• Adding the next-hop address eliminates the need for the router to do any lookups in the routing table before forwarding a packet.
• In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.
• Using a next-hop address in a static route provides a route with a lower metric.
• In multi-access networks, using a next-hop address in a static route makes that route a candidate default route.

17. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
• Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.
• What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
• Serial0/1 is shutdown.
• There is no cable connecting the routers.
• The remote router is using serial 0/0.
• No clock rate has been set.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
• ip route 192.168.0.0 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

19. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
• the serial port of the router
• a modem
• a switch
• the ethernet port of the router
• a CSU/DSU device
• a DTE device

20. Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
• CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.
• By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
• If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP information.
• Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.

21. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
• It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
• It operates at the network layer and allows two systems to learn about each other.
• It creates a topology map of the entire network.
• It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.
• It forwards advertisements about routes for faster convergence.

22. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
• Interface speed and duplex
• Interface MTU
• Errors
• Interface MAC address
• Interface IP address